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NO.1 Refer to the Exhibit.
Which of the following statements is TRUE about this configuration?
A. The System Administrator role is required for this task.
B. The server must be restarted in order for the custom view to be available.
C. The custom view is also available in the Business Space Processes List widget.
D. Before performing this task, the user must make sure that there are no active process instances
running.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A company is redesigning an existing business process. During implementation, the integration
developer realizes that the interface of an imported service is now different from the reference of the
business process. Which of the following is the BEST solution for supporting future releases?
A. Implement a bridge using a java component.
B. Implement an EJB that connects to both interfaces.
C. Use a data map to connect both interfaces.
D. Use a mediation flow to connect both interfaces.
Answer: D

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NO.3 An integration developer is testing a microflow which invokes several external services. This microflow
should take no longer than 30 seconds to complete. During the execution, a transaction timeout exception
was thrown. The developer suspects that one of the external services is taking too long to return the
response. Which of the following methods is the BEST approach to troubleshoot this problem?
A. Use a BPC Explorer to check execution time of the each invocation activity.
B. Use the Tivoli Performance Viewer to check the duration of the service invocation.
C. Examine the SystemOut.log for the associating transaction exception stack-trace.
D. Implement a fault handler in the microflow and collect additional information through the exception
stack-trace.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Refer to the Exhibits.
Which of the following statements BEST describes the configuration?
A. The Reply activity must be placed inside a fault handler.
B. Fault1 must be defined inside the interface that the process implements.
C. Once the Reply activity completes, the process will return Fault1 and always end immediately.
D. The Rethrow activity must be used along with the Reply activity in order to return Fault1 to the caller.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Refer to the Exhibit. The exhibit shows a portion of a process state view monitoring an Account
Verification process instance.
The Credit Check Service activity failed because the target service was unavailable due to a system crash.
Since this failure happened during testing, the integration developer decided to manually enter sample
output data so that the process can be resumed. Which of the following actions will BEST accomplish this
task?
A. Select the "Skip Activity" option on Credit Check Service from the process state view.
B. Select Credit Check Service, and then select Map Credit Checking Result as its target activity. Modify
the activity and resume.
C. Select the failed event associated with this process instance in the Failed Event Manager. Modify the
business object and then resubmit the event.
D. Select the failed event associated with this process instance in the Failed Event Manager. Modify the
business object and then resubmit the event.
E. Select the failed event associated with this process instance in the Failed Event Manager. Modify the
business object and then resubmit the event.
F. Select the "Jump to Another Activity" option on Credit Check Service, and then select Map Credit
Checking Result as the target activity. Select the "Force Complete Source Activity and Jump" option to
manipulate the output.
G. Select the "Jump to Another Activity" option on Credit Check Service, and then select Map Credit
Checking Result as the target activity. Select the "Force Complete Source Activity and Jump" option to
manipulate the output.
H. Select the "Jump to Another Activity" option on Credit Check Service, and then select Map Credit
Checking Result as the target activity. Select the "Force Complete Source Activity and Jump" option to
manipulate the output.
Answer: F,G,H

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NO.6 An integration developer is planning a modular design to support the implementation of a large
application. Which of the following BEST describes the approach that should be taken by the integration
developer while designing the solution in order to achieve module reuse and application maintainability
over time?
A. Use separate modules to expose the logical units of function as separate services and use a single
library to hold the commonly used data types, interfaces, and transformation artifacts.
B. Create multiple modules and libraries to expose the functions that compose the application as separate
services. The services should be selected based on the relative module sizes and complexity of the
functions provided.
C. Identify the portions of the code that are most likely to be reused and deploy each as a separate logical
unit into multiple libraries as independent services. Use a single module to invoke the services deployed
in the libraries.
D. Determine which components should be logically deployed on separate servers based on the
performance requirements of the application and package the code into modules so that there will be one
module per server in the infrastructure.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Refer to the Exhibit.
This process should be defined as a long-running process, because the implementation contains:
A. a Snippet.
B. a Parallel flow.
C. a Wait activity.
D. a Repeat Until Loop activity.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following are TRUE regarding Service Component Architecture (SCA)?
A. Standard Java classes are used to store data.
B. Integration developers can concentrate more time on the details of the service implementation.
C. Without SCA, you must change application code to respond to service implementation changes.
D. SCA provides a single service component abstraction for services that may already be implemented as
business processes.
E. The service component definition is included in a file called <SERVICE_NAME>.SCDL that can have
zero or more interfaces associated with it.
Answer: C,D

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NO.1 Index INDEX1 has been created as follows: CREATE INDEX index1 ON table_x (cola) Which of the
following actions can be done through an ALTER INDEX statement?
A. Add a column to the index key.
B. Change the PCTFREE specification.
C. Make the COMPRESS attribute YES or NO.
D. Make this index the clustering index.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Table TAB_A and index TABA_IDX were created by executing these SQL statements:
If this SQL statement is executed after 100,000 records have been inserted into table TAB_A: ALTER
INDEX taba_idx COMPRESS NO;
Which statement correctly describes what will happen to index TABA_IDX?
A. The index will be uncompressed immediately.
B. The index will remain compressed until it is REORGed.
C. The index will remain compressed until the COMPRESS attribute for table TAB_A has been set to NO.
D. The index will remain compressed until the COMPRESS attribute for table TAB_A has been set to NO
and both the table and the index have been REORGed.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Given the following DDL statements:
What is the end result of the CREATE INDEX statement?
A. TBSP21 and TBSP22 will each contain one local index.
B. INDEX_TS will contain one non-partitioned index since the create index command is missing the
PARTITION keyword.
C. TBSP11 and TBSP12 will each contain one local index since the local indexes will physically reside in
the same table space as the related data.
D. TBSP21 will contain one index because NEW_IDX is not partitioned and will automatically go into the
first index partition listed in the create table statement.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following SQL statements will return monitoring information of tables in the DB2USER
schema that begin with the letter 'A'?
A. SELECT * FROM mon_get_table('DB2USER','A%',-2)
B. SELECT * FROM TABLE(mon_get_table('DB2USER','A%',-2))
C. SELECT * FROM mon_get_table('DB2USER',",-2) WHERE TABNAME LIKE 'A%'
D. SELECT * FROM TABLE(mon_get_table('DB2USER','',-2)) WHERE TABNAME LIKE 'A%'
Answer: D

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NO.5 When storing XML data in a DB2 database, which statement is valid.?
A. A table with an XML column can be defined in a non-Unicode database.
B. A table with an XML column can only be defined in a Unicode database.
C. A table with an XML column can be defined in a non-Unicode database but the table containing the
XML column will be stored in Unicode.
D. A table with an XML column can be defined in a non-Unicode database but the database must be
converted to Unicode before the XML columns can be used.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which is true regarding collecting distribution statistics for XML data?
A. XML distribution statistics are collected for indexes over XML data of type VARCHAR.
B. XML distribution statistics are collected for indexes over XML data of type VARCHAR HASHED.
C. XML distribution statistics are collected when collecting index statistics during index creation.
D. XML distribution statistics are collected for partitioned indexes over XML data defined on a data
partitioned table.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of following is true when decomposing multiple XML documents?
A. It is possible to decompose multiple XML documents stored in a binary column or in an XML column.
B. It is not possible to decompose multiple XML documents stored in a binary column or in an XML
column.
C. It is possible to decompose multiple XML documents stored in a binary column but not in an XML
column.
D. It is possible to decompose multiple XML documents stored in a XML column but not in an binary
column.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Click on the Exhibit button
Given the following DDL statements:
If COL2 contains XML documents similar to the one shown in the scenario, what is the end result of the
CREATE INDEX statement?
A. An error will be returned because it is not possible to create an index for an XML column like COL2.
B. TBSP11 and TBSP12 will each contain one local index for XML_INDEX since the local indexes will
physically reside in the same table space as the related data.
C. An error will be returned because it is not possible to include more than one column as part of the
CREATE INDEX statement when one of the columns is of type XML.
D. A non-partitioned index will be created in table space TBSP21 since the INDEX IN clause of the table
definition is ignored and XML_INDEX will automatically be created within the first index partition listed in
the create table statement.
Answer: C

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NO.1 Redeploy flow
B. 1. Right click Compute node
2. Choose open ESQL
3. Set breakpoint on right hand side margin

NO.2 Choose Debug
C. 1. Double click Compute node
2. Find code breakpoint location
3. Right click left margin of code window beside this location
4. Choose Add Breakpoint
D. 1. Double click JavaCompute node
2. Find code breakpoint location
3. Left click margin of code window beside this location
4. Choose Add Breakpoint
Answer: C

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2. A solution developer needs to implement Web Services Reliable Messaging (WS-RM) on a
message flow for a stock trading company. During unit testing, the solution developer determines
that only the first of four messages, expected in order, have arrived at the destination. During
troubleshooting, what conclusion must the solution developer come to?
A. The second message in the sequence is lost, and so the third and fourth messages have not
processed yet.
B. The sequence number of message two has got out of sync and a reset needs to occur to allow
the other messages to flow to their target.
C. The data of message two is corrupt not allowing message three or four to be processed and
those messages are sitting on the reliablemessaging source queue.
D. The data of message two is corrupt not allowing message three or four to be processed and
those messages are sitting on the reliablemessaging destination queue.
Answer: A

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3. A solution developer is setting up Message Broker for debugging flows. There is a need to set
the
JVM debug port to 2314 from command line for a specific execution group called "MDM" and a
broker called "WMBBRK1". Which command does the solution developer need to use?
A. mqsichangebroker WMBBRK1 -e MDM -o ComIbmJVMManager -n jvmDebugPort -v 2314
B. mqsireportproperties WMBBRK1 -e MDM -i ComIbmJVMManager -n jvmDebugPort -v 2314
C. mqsichangeproperties WMBBRK1 -e MDM -o ComIbmJVMManager -n jvmDebugPort -v 2314
D. mqsichangeproperties WMBBRK1 -e MDM -i ComIbmJVMManager -n jvmDebugPort -v 2314
Answer: C

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4. A customer recently implemented a new standard that all deployable objects must display
Version,
Author, and Defect number in the QuickView panel of Message Broker Explorer. How must the
solution developer code this requirement?
A. &MQSI_Version=v1.0 MQSI&
&MQSI Author=George MQSI&
&MQSI Defect=123456 MQSI&
B. %MQSI_Version=v1.0 MQSI%
%MQSI Author=George MQSI%
%MQSI Defect=123456 MQSI%
C. $MQSI_Version=v1.0 MQSI$
$MQSI Author=George MQSI$
$MQSI Defect=123456 MQSI$
D. &WMB_Version=v1.0 WMB&
&WMB Author=George WMB&
&WMB Defect=123456 WMB&
Answer: C

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NO.3 A solution developer has deployed a message flow containing the DatabaseRetrieve node. The
connection properties to the database were created using the mqsicreateconfigurableservice
command. The solution developer has been told that the database is to be relocated to a different
server. How should the connection properties be updated by the solution developer to reflect the
new server?
A. Run mqsisetdbparms.
B. Run mqsichangebroker.
C. Run mqsichangeproperties.
D. Use a context sensitive menu in the Broker view of the Toolkit.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A message flow needs to be designed such that available messages must be processed in
sequential order. Missing messages in the sequence must be discarded if they appear later. The
solution developer implements this message flow using Sequence and Resequence nodes. To
meet the specifications for this message flow, how should the solution developer wire the
Resequence node?
A. The Out, Expire, and Missing terminals should be wired together.
B. The Out terminal should be wired, but the Expire and Missing terminals should be left unwired.
C. The Out and Missing terminals should be wired together, and the Expire terminal should be left
unwired.
D. The Out and Expire terminals should be wired together, and the Missing terminal should be left
unwired.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A sales company is currently running 2 message flows. The first, ProcessOrder, validates
customer orders and then sends the shipping information to the warehouse via an MQ request
message. Once the warehouse has shipped the order, a reply is sent back which is processed by
the second flow, SendConfirmation, to send a confirmation to the customer. The company is now
expanding and has multiple warehouses. The solution developer must modify ProcessOrder to
send messages to each warehouse only for the items it stocks, and SendConfirmation to send a
response message only when all warehouses have replied. What node(s) should the solution
developer use?
A. SendConfirmation -> MQGet
B. SendConfirmation -> Collector
C. ProcessOrder -> Sequence
SendConfirmation -> Resequence
D. ProcessOrder -> AggregateControl and AggregateRequest
SendConfirmation -> AggregateReply
Answer: D

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NO.6 To activate any new function included in a fix pack, which command must the solution
developer
issue?
A. mqsicvp command.
B. mqsireioad command.
C. mqsichangebroker command with the -f parameter.
D. mqsichangeproperties command with the -n parameter.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Set breakpoint in appropriate location

NO.8 A solution developer has been informed of a problem with a message flow. Based on the error
given, the problem seems to occur in ESQL code. The solution developer determines the need to
debug the code. How does the solution developer set a breakpoint in the ESQL code?
A. 1. Right click message flow

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NO.1 An application developer needs to encrypt sensitive pieces of information while
integrating the Social
Commerce sMash application with BazaarVoice. Which value in the adapter.config must be
encrypted?
A. adminPassword
B. adminSecret
C. restAdminPassword
D. sharedKey
Answer: D

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NO.2 After running the data load utility, the application developer notices an error similar to
the following: An
error occurred while attempting to populate the table ITEMSPC because the mandatory
parameter
ParentProductIdentifier was missing. The ID was not resolved for the table ITEMSPC with the
unique
index data [DL_PROD1_SKU1, 7000000000000000054]. Stack trace:
com.ibm.commerce.foundation.dataload.exception.DataLoadApplicationException: The ID
was not
resolved for the table ITEMSPC with the unique index data [DL_PROD1_SKU1,
7000000000000000054].
at
com.ibm.commerce.foundation.dataload.idresolve.IDResolverForOneTable.resolveId(IDReso
lverForOne
Table.java:336) at
com.ibm.commerce.foundation.dataload.idresolve.IDResolverImpl.resolveId(IDResolverImpl.j
ava:266) at
com.ibm.commerce.foundation.dataload.businessobjectmediator.AbstractBusinessObjectMe
diator.resolv
eIds( AbstractBusinessObjectMediator.java:1164) at
com.ibm.commerce.foundation.dataload.businessobjectmediator.AbstractBusinessObjectMe
diator.resolv
eId(A bstractBusinessObjectMediator.java:1118) at
com.ibm.commerce.inventory.dataload.mediator.AbstractInventoryMediator.resolveItemSPCI
d(AbstractIn
vent oryMediator.java:656) at
com.ibm.commerce.inventory.dataload.mediator.InventoryReceiptMediator.populateRECEIP
T(Inventory
Receipt Mediator.java:251) at
com.ibm.commerce.inventory.dataload.mediator.InventoryReceiptMediator.transform(Invento
ryReceiptM
ediat or.java:120) <...> Note: The information in bold represents variable information:
7000000000000000054.is the member_id, and DL_PROD1_SKU1 is the partnumber. What is
the cause
of the error?
A. The item id is incorrect or missing.
B. The unique index constraint is violated.
C. The inventory value for the product is missing.
D. The inventory system being used is set to ATP while loading non-ATP data.
Answer: D

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NO.3 The business logic layer in WebSphere Commerce runtime is implemented using the
command
pattern where application logic is specified independently from the presentation layer. Which
statement
about the implemented commands for the business logic layer is correct?
A. Entity beans act as an interface between the business components and the database.
B. Task commands are used to implement application logic and should not be accessed by
the
presentation layer.
C. View commands are invoked by the task commands and are used to compose a view as a
response to
a client request.
D. Data bean commands are invoked by the data bean manager and are used to populate
fields of a data
bean with data from a persistent object.
Answer: B

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NO.4 An application developer needs to define the store level action mapping to specify a
target JSP file
which will format Atom feeds for WebSphere Commerce Web services. Where:
ShowCatalogGroupDataAreaType is the name of the SDO for the noun.
SerializeCatalogGroupMadisonsAtom.jsp is the feed formatting JSP file. What should be the
action
mapping in the struts-extension.xml file?
A. <action path="/ShowCatalogGroupDataAreaTypeAtom/0"
forward="/atom/Store/SerializeCatalogGroupMadisonsAtom.jsp"/>
B. <action path="/ShowCatalogGroupDataAreaTypeAtom/<store_Id>"
forward="/atom/Store/SerializeCatalogGroupMadisonsAtom.jsp"/>
C. <action path="/ShowCatalogGroupDataAreaType/0"
forward="/Rest/WebContent/atom/Store/SerializeCatalogGroupMadisonsAtom.jsp"/>
D. <action path="/ShowCatalogGroupDataAreaType/<store_Id>"
forward="/Rest/WebContent/atom/Store/SerializeCatalogGroupMadisonsAtom.jsp"/>
Answer: B

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NO.5 When using the 'No Validation or Reservation' payment rule, with 'finalize payment'
event, what is the
target state of payment?
A. APPROVED
B. DEPOSITED
C. FINALIZED
D. DNE (Does Not Exist)
Answer: B

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NO.6 An application developer is creating different outbound queues for different message
types while
integrating with WebSphere MQ. Which method of the SendMsgCmd command must be
used to set the
queue destination in the custom code?
A. setMsgData
B. setConfigData
C. setContentData
D. setCommandData
Answer: B

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NO.7 An application developer notices that a policy that is expected to grant access
appears in the trace,
however it is not being applied. In addition an error similar to the following example is logged
to the
trace.log file. PolicyManagerImpl.isAllowed isAllowed? User=510; Action=Execute;
Protectable=com.ibm.commerce.catalog.commands.ProductDisplayCmdImpl; Owner=2002;
Resource
Ancestor Orgs=2002,-2001; Resource Applicable Orgs=2002 PolicyManagerImpl.isAllowed
Found
PolicyName:AllUsersExecuteResellerUserCmdResourceGroup; PolicyType: 3; PolicyOwner:
-2001
PolicyManagerImpl.getPolicyApplicableOrgs No organizations subscribe to a policy group
with this policy
PolicyManagerImpl.isAllowed Policy does not apply to the resource's applicable
organizations ...
PolicyManagerImpl.isAllowed PASSED? =false Apart from ensuring that the resource owner
is
subscribing to the correct policy groups and subscribing the organization to the policy group,
what are the
correct values to insert into the ACPLGPSUBS table?
A. orgentity_id = 2002 and acpolgrp_id = 10001(ManagementAndAdministrationPolicyGroup)
and
orgentity_id = 2002 and acpolgrp_id =10003
(CommonShoppingPolicyGroup)
B. orgentity_id = -2001 and acpolgrp_id =
10001(ManagementAndAdministrationPolicyGroup) and
orgentity_id = -2001 and acpolgrp_id =10003
(CommonShoppingPolicyGroup)
C. orgentity_id = -2001 and acpolgrp_id =
10001(ManagementAndAdministrationPolicyGroup)and
orgentity_id = 2002 and acpolgrp_id =10003
(CommonShoppingPolicyGroup)
D. orgentity_id = 2002 and acpolgrp_id =
10001(ManagementAndAdministrationPolicyGroup)and
orgentity_id = -2001 and acpolgrp_id =10003
(CommonShoppingPolicyGroup)
Answer: A

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NO.8 If the requirements are as follows, which of the URLs must the application developer
use? ?Check if
any of the parents of the specified organization are locked. ?Check if the specified
organization is the
parent organization of the user. If it is not, then check whether the user assumes the
Organization
Participant role in the specified organization or any of its ancestors. ?Reset all contract
information such
that new contracts can be applied to reflect the change in the active organization.
A. BuyerUserRegistrationUpdate URL
B. ContractSetInSession URL
C. OrgEntityUpdate URL
D. OrganizationSetInSession URL
Answer: D

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Exam Name: IBM InfoSphere BigInsights Technical Mastery Test v2
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Exam Name: Assessment: Creating IBM Lotus Notes and Domino 8.5 Applications with Xpages and Advanced Techniques
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NO.1 Which of the following components is NOT included in the BigInsights Basic Edition
distribution?
A. Hadoop Distributed File System.
B. Hive.
C. Pig.
D. BigSheets.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What does ig Data?represent?What does ?ig Data?represent?
A. A Hadoop feature capable of processing vast amounts of data in-parallel on large clusters of
commodity hardware in a reliable, fault-tolerant manner.
B. A concept and platform of technologies with the characteristics of the ? Vs? that is able to handle
large amounts of unstructured,semi-structured, and structured raw data unlike traditional systems.
C. A database feature capable of converting pre-existing structured data into unstructured raw data.
D. Only data stored in the BIGDATA table in any relational database.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the InfoSphere BigInsights Credential Store?
A. The InfoSphere BigInsights credentials store is a table stored in the HBase relational database that
stores passwords, tokens, and other potentially sensitive information.
B. The InfoSphere BigInsights credentials store is a designated folder on the distributed file system
(DFS) that stores passwords, tokens, and other potentially sensitive information.
C. The InfoSphere BigInsights credentials store is a designated folder in the local file system (not
HDFS) that stores the authorities and privileges for all users in the BigInsights environment.
D. The InfoSphere BigInsights credentials store is a designated file defined by an environment
variable that stores the authorities and privileges for all users in the BigInsights environment.
Answer: B

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NO.4 How do existing applications usually connect to InfoSphere BigInsights using the Big SQL
feature?
A. Applications will connect using custom made connectors programmed in SPL.
B. Applications will connect using standard JDBC and ODBC drivers that come with InfoSphere
BigInsights.
C. Applications will connect using the JAQL programming language.
D. Applications will connect using either HiveQL or Pig programming languages.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is Big SQL?
A. Big SQL is a feature in Data Explorer that allows for indexing of data from SQL sources such as
data warehouses.
B. Big SQL is a feature in BigInsights that allows for native SQL query access for Hadoop, providing
full ANSI SQL 92 compliance and standardSQL syntax such as joins, for data contained in a variety of
formats such as structured Hive tables, Hbase tables, or csv and other delimitedfiles in HDFS.
C. Big SQL is a feature in Streams that allows for real time analysis of data via standard SQL syntax.
D. Big SQL is a feature in BigInsights that provides a SQL like interface to data contained in Hbase
tables only. Other data sources in HDFS mustbe accessed via other means such as HiveQL.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following options best describes the differences between a traditional data
warehouse environment and a Hadoop environment?
A. Traditional data warehousing environments are mostly ideal for analyzing structured data from
various systems, while a Hadoop environment is well suited to deal with structured, semi-structured,
and unstructured data, as well as when a data discovery process is needed.
B. Hadoop environments are mostly ideal for analyzing structured and semi-structured data from a
single system, while traditional data warehousing environment is well suited to deal with
unstructured data, as well as when a data discovery process is needed.
C. Typically, data stored in Hadoop environments is cleaned up before storing in the distributed
file-system.
D. Typically, data stored in data warehousing environments is rarely filtered and pre-processed. On
the other hand, data injected into Hadoop environments is always pre-processed and filtered.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2180-276
Exam Name: IBM Business Process Manager Express or Standard Edition V8.0, BPM Application Development
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NO.1 A BPM application developer is developing a BPM solution in a process application called
'Auto Loan Review Process' (ALREV). ALREV has an existing dependency on a toolkit called 'Financial
Calculation Services' (FCSERV). The developer is asked to update an integration service in FCSERV
and use that new service in ALREV.
What steps must the developer take to ensure that ALREV will utilize the new service created in
FCSERV?
A. 1. Update the integration service in FCSERV
2.Take a snapshot of FCSERV
3.Update the dependency of ALREV from the FCSERV toolkit
B. 1. Update the integration service in FCSERV
2.Take a snapshot of FCSERV
3.Update dependency on FCSERV from the ALREV process application
C. 1. Create a new integration service in ALREV
2.Move the new integration service from ALREV to FCSERV
3.Take a snapshot of FCSERV
D. 1. Take a snapshot of FCSERV
2.Update the integration service in FCSERV
3.Update dependency on FCSERV in the ALREV process application
Answer: B

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NO.2 A BPM application developer is developing assets at a company with the following BPM
infrastructure:
A) One Process Center environment -The BPM application developer has all security privileges
required to access this environment
B) Three runtime environments- Test, Staging, and Production -Each runtime environment is a two
node, clustered environment -They are all configured as "online" environments -The BPM
application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments
The BPM application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments
The BPM application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments
The BPM application developer has been asked to create a Saved Search in each environment using
the Process Admin Console. How many times must the BPM application developer open a Process
Admin Console to make this change?
A. 1 time, since the Process Center environment's Process Admin console manages all online
environments
B. 2 times, once for the Process Center environment and once for the runtime environments
C. 4 times, since each environment has it's own Process Admin console
D. 7 times, since each node in each environment has its own Process Admin console
Answer: C

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NO.3 A BPM application developer has completed the development of a process application. The
team lead has now directed the application developer to install the snapshot onto a staging server
for additional testing before it is moved into production. Assuming the default Process Server
settings are in place, what minimum level of access must the developer have in order to install the
snapshot onto the staging server? The application developer must have, at a minimum:
A. write access to the process application with no additional group membership.
B. write access to the process application and must be a member of the process-center-installgroup
as defined in the 100Custom.xml file.
C. administrative access to the process application with no additional group membership.
D. administrative access to the process application and must be a member of the
process-centerinstall-group as defined in the 100Custom.xml file.
Answer: A

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NO.4 After deploying a snapshot onto the production server, the BPM application developer wants
to have two development versions of the process application, one for the resolution of issues that
needs to get fixed immediately in production and one for the development of new features. How
can the BPM application developer obtain the necessary development versions without creating a
new process application?
A. Create a new snapshot for the process application.
B. Create a clone of the snapshot installed in production.
C. Create a new track from the snapshot installed in production.
D. Import the snapshot installed in production into the Process Center.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A BPM application developer needs to create custom SQL queries targeting the Business
Performance Data Warehouse to satisfy a customer's reporting requirements. While browsing the
system catalog of the database management system, the developer notices tables and views
corresponding to the tracking groups defined in the process application. Which database artifacts
should the developer query to obtain only the actively tracked data? The BPM application developer
should query the:
A. views, because the views contains more recent data than the tables.
B. views, because the views contain only the data resulting from the updated tracking definitions.
C. tables, because the tables contains more recent data than the views.
D. tables, because the tables contain only the data resulting from the updated tracking definitions.
Answer: B

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NO.6 The business owner of a purchasing process has requested a report that displays the total time
of three activities. What should the BPM application developer use to send the data to the
Performance Data Warehouse to create this report?
A. A Timing Interval
B. A Service Level Agreement
C. Exposed Process Variables
D. Shared Business Objects
Answer: A

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NO.7 A process owner of an insurance company requests to receive an email if the amount of a loan
is higher than $50,000. After creating the custom Key Performance Indicator (KPI) Amount (currency)
and associating it to the activity, how should the BPM application developer configure the
Assignment Setting to set the value of the KPI to the amount of the loan object? Uncheck "use KPI
defaults", and apply the following settings.
A. Assignment Type: Select Absolute Value Value: tw.local.loan.amount
B. Assignment Type: Select Absolute Value Value: tw.perf.value = tw.local.loan.amount
C. Assignment Type: Select custom JavaScript Value: tw.perf.value = tw.local.loan.amount
D. Assignment Type: Select custom JavaScript Value: tw.local.loan.amount
Answer: D

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NO.8 A BPM application developer has completed the development of a high profile process
application and is now ready to deploy the solution into the test environment. The application
developer has been told to allow one peer developer and the technical team lead to review and
approve the work before it can be installed onto the test server. The application developer's
manager has requested that the process of gathering these approvals be automated for auditing
purposes. What steps must the BPM application developer take in order to fulfill this requirement?
The BPM application developer must:
A. enable governance on the high profile process and use wsadmin to install the process.
B. create a business process definition, inside of the high profile process application, to implement
the approvals governance process.
C. ask a user with the administrative authority to create a System Governance toolkit dependency to
create a process application that will be used for governance.
D. ensure that there is a task in the governance process that will allow a designated person to install
the process, using Process Center, after all approvals have been received.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C2140-052
Exam Name: Collaborative Lifecycle Management V4
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Exam Code: A2060-350
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM WebSphere Transformation Extender V8.4 Application Development
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Exam Code: A2090-420
Exam Name: Assessment: InfoSphere MDM Server v9.0
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NO.1 Refer to image shown here:
Which of the following statements is TRUE with regards to the type trees created using the XML
Schema Importer.
A. The trees were created with different schemas.
B. One tree was created using XSDL Hints and Xerces validation.
C. One tree was created using Classic validation and XSDL Hints.
D. One tree was created using Classic validation and the other using Xerces validation.D.One tree
was created using Classic validation and the other using Xerces validation.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two of the following statements are TRUE of a component rule? A component rule:
A. is used to create output.
B. is used for data validation.
C. can refer to any other component in the component list.
D. is always evaluated even if an optional component is not present in the data.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 The image here shows the components of a purchase order:
The application requires that the total number of items (TotalItems) in the Trailer Record equals the
sum of the quantity ordered (QtyOrdered) for each purchase order.
This verification can be performed by a component rule. Which component should have the
component rule?
A. TotalItems
B. QtyOrdered
C. Detail Record
D. Trailer Record
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statement about syntax items is TRUE?
A. They must have a restriction list.
B. They have a maximum length of 1 byte.
C. The value must come from the input data.
D. They cannot be used as variable initiators.
Answer: A

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NO.5 An application developer has a file which consists of fixed length records.
The first record is a header record followed by some number of detail records.
The number of detail records is expressed by a value found in the header record.
How does the developer define this type of data in WebSphere Transformation Extender?
A. Index the input based on the count in the header record.
B. Use a Map function to keep track of how many detail records there are.
C. Write a custom function to store the number of detail records in the map context.
D. Use a component rule to compare the current record to the value found in the header.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two of the following statements are TRUE of syntax items? Syntax items:
A. are limited to 10 bytes.
B. can only be defined as character data.
C. can be defined as character or binary data.
D. are used as separators between portions of data.
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 The structure of the following file has been partially defined in a type tree:
~Smith~Robert~Programmer<NL> ~Doe~John~Manager<NL>
The properties of the types have not been completely defined.
Which of the following options defines the properties for the use of the tilde (~) character in the
sample file?
A. Define ~ as a floating component of the Record type.
B. Define ~ character as a prefix delimiter of the File type.
C. Define ~ character as a prefix delimiter of the Record type.
D. Define ~ character as the initiator and terminator of LastName and FirstName types and initiator
of Title type.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the primary difference between a choice group and a partitioned group?
A. A choice group requires that data must be distinguishable; a partitioned group does not.
B. A partitioned group requires that data must be distinguishable; a choice group does not.
C. A choice group can have both items and groups as components; a partition group can only have
groups as subtypes.
D. A partitioned group can contain both items and groups as components; a choice group can only
contain groups as components.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: M2150-709
Exam Name: IBM Security Systems Sales Mastery Test v3
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Exam Code: P2070-091
Exam Name: IBM Content Analytics Product Fundamentals Technical Mastery Test v1
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Exam Code: M2150-662
Exam Name: IBM Security Systems Sales Mastery Test v2
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NO.1 In the RSA breach case study, how was the attack enabled?
A. A Spear-Phishing email containing a weaponized attachment
B. A SQL injection attack on the RSA partner portal
C. A DDOS attack on the company's web servers
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.computerweekly.com/news/1280095593 /RSA-discloses-phishingattack-data-
breach-details

NO.2 In considering the overall SIEM competitive landscape, what are the 2 top points that favor
QRadar over all of its competitors?
A. Broadest set of integrated capabilities and ease of deployment.
B. Deepest packet inspection, and it is frequently the lowest priced offering.
C. Runs on any platform and offers a toolkit with the greatest modularity - a real plus with technical
teams.
D. Easiest to learn customization language and search performance.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 What is a value/feature of zSecure Compliance and Auditing?
A. Real time monitoring of database activities
B. Centralized view of enterprise security incidents
C. Unified management of keys across disparate platforms
D. Addresses real time audit control points, especially network audit control points
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the primary customer requirement that Access Manager for Web (formerly Access
Manager for e-business) addresses?
A. Web single sign-on.
B. Service oriented architecture application access management.
C. Hardening servers involved in e-business transactions.
D. Enterprise e-business audit log management and reporting.
Answer: A

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NO.5 The common architecture across the QRadar products offers advantages over the competition.
What are the main 2 advantages that were covered?
A. Opens areas of visibility into your network and scales easily.
B. QRadar is a well architected toolkit that can 1) satisfy even very obscure and complex
requirements and 2) outperform other competitors no matter what the use case.
C. QRadar works on most available platforms and is integrated with more products than other
competitive products are.
D. QRadar itself is highly secure, and because its architecture is open, it has been approved by NIST
and OASIS
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 The IBM Security Network Protection (XGS) platform provides which of the following features
on top of what is provided by the IBM Security Network IPS platform?
A. Advanced Threat Protection
B. Visibility and Control
C. Application Scanning capabilities
D. Security Intelligence
Answer: B

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NO.7 Name a competitor to IBM zSecure.
A. Oracle
B. Vanguard
C. Hewlett Packard
D. Serena Software
Answer: B

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NO.8 There were 3 themes used to describe QRadar"s value. Which of those 3 themes is one that
best relates to the unified view that the QRadar Console offers its customers?
A. Analysis
B. Automation
C. Intelligence
D. Integration
Answer: C

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Exam Code: M2180-228
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Cast Iron Sales Mastery Test v1
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Exam Code: A4070-603
Exam Name: Assessment: System z Sales V6
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Exam Code: C4090-451
Exam Name: Midrange Storage Technical Support V3
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NO.1 What must a Business Partner do to be approved and receive a Software Value Plus
Identify and/or Sell
fee payment?
A. Demonstrate active selling engagement with the customer for the IBMproducts by
providing supporting
documentation that shows their activitiesthat contributed to thecustomer sdecision.
B. Indicate when the opportunity is won and provide supporting documentationto show their
influence of
thecustomer sbuying decision when they submittheir SVI payment request.
C. No action needed.
D. A & B
Answer: D

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NO.2 To register an opportunity for Software Value Incentive program, the partner should do
what?
A. Call the IBM sales person s/he knows is already in the account beforeanything else.
B. Have your Company's PartnerWorld programadministrator enterstheopportunity into the
Global Partner
Portal.
C. Contact your Value Add Distributor.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.3 The premium SVI incentive fees are paid for Eligible End Users that IBM designates as
general
business (GB). How can SVI-approved Business Partners find out if an End User is
designated as GB?
A. Signing onto the Passport Advantage Online tools and following the onscreen instructions
to access
the Price Quote Order (PQO) tool.
B. Contact your Value Add Distributor (VAD)
C. Search on IBM.com
D. A & B
Answer: A

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NO.4 If you need to demonstrate Cast Iron's capabilities to a prospect, you can _.
A. setup a demo system by purchasing the IBM Value Package which includesthe Hypervisor
version of
Cast Iron (e.g. virtual appliance)
B. make a request to your local IBM sales rep for WebSphere Cast Ironassistance
C. use IBM's pre-recorded demos on its Website
D. All of the above.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C2040-925
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring IBM Lotus Notes and Domino 8.5
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Exam Code: P2070-053
Exam Name: IBM FileNet P8 Product Fundamentals Technical Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 When installing and deploying Workplace XT across four nodes, at a single site in a highly
available configuration (i.e. J2EE application cluster), which of the following two statements follows
IBM's best practices?
A. Install Workplace XT on a single node only.
B. Store all configuration information in the EAR file.
C. Install Workplace XT on all four nodes independently.
D. Use a shared file system for configuration files used by all four nodes.
E. Install Workplace XT on a network file system that is shared by all four nodes.
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 In which of the following situations should you use sub maps in a work flow?
A. They can be used to implement simple work flows that have 4 or fewer steps
B. They can be used to breakdown complex work flows into more manageable pieces
C. They can be used to encapsulate all tasks in a work flow allowing the main map to hide details
D. B and C
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which one of the following is NOT a function of the FileNet Process Configuration Console?
A. Configure workflow subscriptions
B. Configure component queues
C. Configure work queues
D. Configure the event logs
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which is NOT a characteristic of a workflow definition?
A. It is a graphical map showing the sequences of steps needed to complete the business process
B. Contains roles to specify which users can access specific types of work flows
C. It is a specification of each step, including who will process the work for the step, which step
processor application the participant will use, which attachments are required, what data is
necessary, what responses the participant can choose, and other options.
D. Contains routing logic that specifies how work advances from one step to the next
Answer: B

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NO.5 An instance of IBM Content Search Services server has been successfully installed. To verify the
installation, the deployment specialist needs to check the value of the authentication token that was
generated by the installation procedure, based upon the supplied seed, and then manually record it
for later use. How can this be accomplished?
A. Inspect the installation log file - the token is recorded there.
B. Use the supplied configTool command line utility to display the value of the token.
C. Use the supplied adminTool command line utility to display the value of the token.
D. Use the supplied dumpIndex tool to recover the configuration information (including the token).
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is Administration Console for Content Platform Engine (ACCE) replacing?
A. System Manager
B. Configuration Manager
C. Deployment Manager
D. FileNet Enterprise Manager
Answer: D

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NO.7 Where are the application server logs located in a typical IBM WebSphere CPE installation?
A. install_root/profiles/<profile-name>/logs/<server-name>
B. install_root/user_projects/domains/<domain-name>/servers/<server-name>/logs
C. install_root/server/<server-name>/log
D. <Deployed_CPE_home_dir/FileNet/<server-name>
Answer: A

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NO.8 An administrator is preparing to update all IBM FileNet P8 components with a new Content
Engine client fix pack.
The installation and upgrade worksheet will be used to gather values for the client update.
What must be done to filter the worksheet for Content Engine client installer values only?
A. Verify that row filtering is enabled.
B. Verify that column filtering is enabled.
C. Verify that row and column filtering is enabled.
D. Verify that the Data > Filter > AutoFilter command is enabled.
Answer: D

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