2014年9月30日星期二

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NO.1 The development team of a company needs to deploy their business rules in a testing
environment and
a production environment. Rules with status "Defined" should be deployed to the testing
environment,
while rules with status "Verified" should be deployed to the production environment.
What should the developer do to satisfy this requirement?
A. Create one project with one ruleset extractor based on a dynamic query, which takes rule
status as a
parameter in the Ruleset Export wizard.
B. Create one project with two ruleset extractors based on two queries.
C. Create one project with two ruleset extractors based on two validator classes.
D. Create two rule projects, one for rules with status "Defined" and the other for rules with
status
"Verified".
Answer: B

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NO.2 A developer is implementing a new Business Rule Management System. The
requirements say that the
rules should be valid for specific periods of time and no additional rule properties are
required.
At a minimum, the developer should use:
A. the default extension model.
B. the plug-in extension model.
C. a specific extension data file.
D. a new extension model and new extension data file.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A company has a non-static BOM method void addLine(OrderLine line, String
comment)in class Order.
Rule writers should be presented with the action phrase "add an item to an order with
comment a string".
How should a developer verbalize this method.?
A. add <0, an item> to <this> with comment <1, a string>
B. add <line, "an item"> to <this> with comment <comment>
C. add {0, "an item"} to {this} with comment {1}
D. add {line, "an item"} to {this} with comment {comment}
Answer: C

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NO.4 A developer must set up a rule project. The developer has received three Java archive
(.jar) files. The
first .jar file contains information related to the input parameter. The second .jar file contains
information
related to the output parameter. The third .jar file contains utility methods that are not used by
the rules or
by the other two .jar files. To create the BOM in the rule project, the developer should add:
A. two .jar files to the XOM and create one BOM entry.
B. two .jar files to the XOM and create two BOM entries.
C. all three .jar files to the XOM and create one BOM entry.
D. all three .jar files to the XOM and create three BOM entries.
Answer: B

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NO.5 The validation team is complaining because the WSDL generated by the Transparent
Decision Service
is incomplete and does not allow for execution. When verifying the application, the developer
realizes that
the schemas are not available. What should the developer do to resolve the problem?
A. Add the schemas in the BOM Editor.
B. Reference the schemas in the ruleapp project.
C. Package the schemas in the META-INF classes of the application.
D. Select the schemas in the dynamic execution object model property.
Answer: D

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NO.1 If the following commands complete successfully for a single partition database: CREATE
DATABASE mydb; CREATE BUFFERPOOL mybp; Which statement is true?
A. Self tuning is enabled for the MYBP buffer pool.
B. The initial size for the MYBP buffer pool is zero pages.
C. The database has to be restarted before the MYBP buffer pool will become active.
D. The page size for the MYBP buffer pool can be changed using the ALTER BUFFERPOOL
statement.
Answer: A

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NO.2 On which two operating systems can DB2 pureScale run? (Choose two.)
A. AIX
B. Linux
C. HP-UX
D. Solaris
E. Windows
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 The following query is executed frequently against the SALES table: SELECT sales_id,
sales_date, sales_person FROM sales; If data in the SALES_ID column is unique, which
statement will create an index for optimal query performance and ensure uniqueness of the
SALES_ID column?
A. CREATE INDEX sales_idx ON sales (sales_id, sales_date, sales_person)
B. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX sales_idx ON sales (sales_id, sales_date, sales_person)
C. CREATE INDEX sales_idx ON sales (sales_id) INCLUDE (sales_date, sales_person)
D. CREATE UNIQUE INDEX sales_idx ON sales (sales_id) INCLUDE (sales_date, sales_person)
Answer: D

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NO.4 If the following statements are executed: CREATE STOGROUP sg_hot ON '/path1', '/path2',
'/path3'; CREATE STOGROUP sg_med ON '/path4', '/path5', '/path6'; CREATE TABLESPACE
tbsp1 USING STOGROUP sg_hot; What is the recommended way to move table space TBSP1
from storage group SG_HOT to storage group SG_MED?
A. Issue an ALTER TABLESPACE statement with the 'USING sg_med' option.
B. Issue an ALTER STOGROUP statement with the 'MOVE tbsp1 TO sg_med' option.
C. Perform a table space RESTORE operation with the 'USING STOGROUP sg_hot' option.
D. Use the ADMIN_MOVE_TABLESPACE procedure to move table space TBSP1 to SG_HOT.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement about SMS table spaces is correct?
A. The system catalog cannot be stored in an SMS table space.
B. Tables, large objects (LOBs), and indexes can each reside in separate SMS table spaces.
C. SMS table spaces are recommended when you have small tables that are not likely to grow
quickly.
D. Extents are more likely to be contiguous with SMS table spaces than they are with DMS table
spaces.
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NO.6 A DB2 9 database named MYDB that does not use automatic storage was migrated to DB2
10.1.
When will a default storage group be defined for this database?
A. The first time the database is accessed after the migration.
B. The first time the CREATE STOGROUP statement is executed.
C. When the ALTER DATABASE mydb CONVERT statement is used to convert the database to
an automatic storage database.
D. When the ALTER TABLESPACE statement is used to convert the table space that holds the
system catalog for the database to automatic storage.
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which two languages can be scanned by the AppScan Source CLI?
A. C++
B. Java
C. Fortran
D. Haskell
E. ActionScript
Answer: A,B

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Reference:https://www01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSS9LM_9.0.0/com.ibm.rational.apps
cansrc.install.d oc/topics/system_requirements_language_support.html?cp=SSS9LM_9.0.0%2F1-2-
00&lang=en

NO.2 You are reviewing a thick client application and come upon File Injection findings in a function
that opens zip files and extracts data from them, but the customer you are working with tells you
that the data is sanitized using a method mySanitizer.validateZip(..). You confirm this and decideto
remove this vulnerability and other File Injection findings with sanitized data using the Remove
functionality of the Trace section in the Filter Editor.
What do you need to do in the Trace Rule Entry dialog to ensure that the rule you create applies only
to this application's zip extractor and not all File Inclusion findings?
A. Specify Sink method name.
B. Specify File Inclusion as Sink property.
C. Specify File Inclusion as Source property.
D. Add validateZipO to the Required Calls section.
E. Add validateZipO to the Prohibited Calls section.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are reviewing an online shopping application and find a lost sink method called
combineltemListsf..,) that is provided by a third-party shopping framework. This method combines
two lists of items (provided as arguments) into one.
Which type of custom rule do you need to create for this method?
A. Sink
B. Source
C. Taint Propagator
D. Tainted Callback
E. Not Susceptible to Taint
Answer: C

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Reference:http://pic.dhe.ibm.com/infocenter/appsrc/v8r5/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.ibm.ratio
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NO.4 What is the difference between AppScan Source Developer and AppScan Source Remediation
licenses?
A. AppScan Source for Remediation supports only Visual Studio while AppScan Source for Developer
supports both Eclipse and Visual Studio.
B. AppScan Source Developer allows you to run scans from CLI, while AppScan Source Remediation
allows you only to remediate security issues.
C. AppScan Source Developer allows you only to remediate security issues, while AppScan Source
Remediation allows you to run scans from within the IDE.
D. AppScan Source Developer allows you to run scans from within the IDE, while AppScan Source
Remediation allows you only to remediate security issues.
Answer: A

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NO.5 To scan JavaScript included within an ASP.NET application, which additional steps must be
completed to ensure these artifacts are scanned?
A. Create a C# project type
B. Import the Visual Studio Solution
C. Build a build.xml file and add it to the application project
D. Manually create a JavaScript project type and add it to the application
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two licenses can be used for AppScan Source IDE plug-ins?
A. IBM Security AppScan Source for Quality
B. IBM Security AppScan Source for Analysis
C. IBM Security AppScan Source for Developer
D. IBM Security AppScan Source for Automation
E. IBM Security AppScan Source for Remediation
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 You just scanned an application with over total 10,000 findings. Many of the findings are in a
particular API, which you know is not vulnerable.
Without re-scanning the application, what should you do to reduce the number of visible findings in
the assessment?
A. Create a custom rule.
B. Create a custom filter.
C. Set the severity of each finding to Info.
D. Set the vulnerability type of each finding to null.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the best practice for scanning an Android application?
A. Import Workspace, Scan Application
B. Install Eclipse IDE, Scan Application
C. Add JAVA files manually, Add Dependencies. Scan Application
D. Verify build succeeds in Eclipse. Import Workspace, Scan Application
Answer: C

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NO.1 A customer wants to deploy a new cashier fraud loss prevention solution. What is the
business value
of this solution?
A. reduces customer theft
B. reduces front-end shrink
C. improves inventory accuracy
D. improves cashier productivity
Answer: B

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NO.2 A Retail Store Solutions Sales Representative is staffing a booth at a trade show. Other
than business
cards, what is the most important information the Sales Representative should gather from
each visitor?
A. area of interest
B. most used retail vendor
C. retail budget projections
D. number of lanes per store
E. retail revenue projections
Answer: A

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NO.3 A warehouse retailer has issued an RFP for a self checkout solution with 3 years of
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asked for best and final pricing for 500 stores with 4 lanes each. What are two of the most
important
factors to know about the competition when pricing the solution? (Choose two.)
A. market position
B. maintenance terms
C. lane configuration
D. relationship with customer
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 A sales representative is meeting with the CFO of a retailer to explain the current
proposal for a new
POS system. The CFO asks the RSS representative to be prepared to justify why this project
should be
funded ahead of other projects under consideration. Which two actions should the RSS
representative
take to be best prepared for this discussion? (Choose two.)
A. review the ROI
B. Google the CFO's background
C. review the business value drivers
D. understand the CFO's relationship with IBM
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 A food service retailer is interested in the SurePOS 500 for their ten stores. Each store
has two registers.
What is the best resource to handle this customer's needs?
A. RSS ISV
B. RSS Reseller
C. IBM GBS representative
D. Retail Store Solutions (RSS) sales representative
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are two Internet-based resources a sales representative may use to identify POS
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customer account? (Choose two.)
A. competitors' Web sites
B. Hoover's POS Competition Web site
C. Securities and Exchange (SEC) filings
D. IBM Retail Store Solution product Web site
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 What are two weaknesses of Micros? (Choose two.)
A. proprietary solutions
B. no fans in some models
C. reliance on infraredtouchscreens
D. 10/100 Ethernet LAN slowing network connectivity
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 A food service retailer is interested in the SurePOS 500 for their 500 stores. Each store
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registers. Which two resources can handle this customer's needs? (Choose two.)
A. RSS ISV
B. RSS reseller
C. IBM GBS representative
D. Retail Store Solutions (RSS) sales representative
Answer: B,D

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NO.1 What can be used to provide remote users with access to Controller over limited
bandwidth networks?
A. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
B. Citrix (Terminal Server)
C. Deterministic Network Enhancers
D. Installing the Gateway in a DMZ
Answer: B

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NO.2 What does configuring the .Net 2.0 Framework accomplish?
A. It allows the Controller COM+ object to access the Controller Database.
B. It allows users to communicate with the .Net 2.0 Framework SDK.
C. It creates a Trust between the Controller Client Distribution Server and the Controller client
computer.
D. It allows for the encryption of communication between internal server components.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which component of the Controller architecture processes all requests for downloading
Controller
components to the end user's computer?
A. Client Distribution Server
B. Content Management Server
C. Web Services Server
D. Report Server
Answer: A

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NO.4 Enhance Reporting Optimization uses which of the following method(s)?
A. RSS 1.0 or higher, if the Database OS is Unix
B. File Copy, if the database OS is Windows
C. RDP to the Web Services Server
D. Controller's FastNet copy utility
Answer: B

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NO.5 Why is the .Net 2.0 Framework SDK needed?
A. To allow users to publish their Framework Manager models for use with Controller.
B. It provides a Graphical User Interface for configuring the code groups.
C. It is used to configure the Controller Data Mart Database.
D. It is needed when using Controller with SSL (Secure Socket Layer).
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which three options are available for defining build schedules? (Choose three)
A. at a continuous interval in minutes on selected days
B. at a particular time for defined days
C. during defined business hours
D. only if there are newly accepted changes
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 How is version control of process templates accomplished?
A. automatically by IBM Rational Team Concert on every save
B. by the naming convention of the templates
C. by keeping copies on a shared drive
D. by using IBM Rational Team Concert source control of the exported process template
Answer: D

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NO.3 Work Items presentation: Which is NOT part of the default work item presentations?
A. Plan Editor Preview
B. Inline Work Item Editor
C. Work Item Editor
D. Eclipse Work Item Editor
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which three views does the default Eclipse perspective work items provide? (Choose
three.)
A. Package Explorer
B. Team Artifacts
C. Team Central
D. My Work
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 For what purpose should a project administrator use a value set definition.?
A. to display all users in a project or team area that have a specific role
B. to display a full list of team members
C. to enable a query to show only those work items related to a specific category
D. to write a query that lists all the users in a team
Answer: A

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NO.6 When working with public dashboards, which two factors should be considered when
determining the
best strategy for saving changes?
A. number of widgets being customized and elapsed load time
B. proper permissions and type of dashboard
C. number of people with permissions to edit and type of edits
D. dashboard template configuration and widget selection
Answer: C

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NO.7 In Scrum, what is a constantly prioritized to-do list of high-level work?
A. Sprint Backlog
B. Sprint
C. Product Backlog
D. Product
Answer: C

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NO.8 In addition to Release, Iteration, and Daily Work Planning, which three capabilities does
IBM Rational
Team Concert Support? (Choose three.)
A. Requirements Management
B. Work Item Management
C. Source Code Management
D. Build Management
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2014年9月29日星期一

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NO.1 A BPM analyst is helping to identify and select the appropriate solution for process
improvement in a large BPM project. What are the business levers the BPM analyst should focus on?
A. Policy, Technology, Organization and People
B. Policy, Data, Organization and People
C. Process, Technology, Organization and People
D. Process, Data, Organization and People
Answer: C

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NO.2 On a project, the BPM analyst defined the following to identify the Key Performance Indicator
(KPI):
-The goal of the project was to improve the efficiency of the process.
-The concern was that the process was not fast enough.
-The Critical to Quality (CTQ) was the speed of the process.
-The client was interested in the cycle time of the process.
-The time stamps at the beginning and at the end of the process are captured.
Which step did the BPM analyst fail to perform in identifying the KPI?
A. Know the client objectives
B. Know how to define the client's KPI
C. Know the process decision makers
D. Know the client's Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
Answer: C

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NO.3 A company that processes applications has been using IBM Business Process Manager V8.0
over the last year. The company has asked IBM to analyze its processes in production because it
wants to continue improving its processes. The IBM BPM team sends a BPM analyst. What should
the BPM analyst do?
A. Use the Discovery View in Blueworks Live to perform inspection on the process.
B. Use the Analyze feature in Blueworks Live to perform Historical and Simulation Analysis.
C. Use the Optimizer in IBM Business Process Manager V8.0 to perform Historical and Simulation
Analysis.
D. Use the Process Inspector in IBM Business Process Manager V8.0 to perform inspection on the
process.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A BPM analyst is conducting interviews with the participants of a business process. What
feedback about the process should the BPM analyst look out for that might not be obvious in an
as-is process diagram?
A. Excessive reviews
B. Too many participants
C. Identification of bottlenecks
D. Not enough system automation
Answer: C

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NO.5 A BPM analyst is performing a process inventory analysis at a company that has many
processes and has gathered all required information to calculate a priority value for each process in
order to rank them. How should the BPM analyst compute this?
A. Provide a scale and weight for each activity in the process.
B. Provide a scale for each of the prioritization criterion and weigh the criteria against the processes.
C. Have the customer and the BPM analyst provide 2 different priority values independently and
calculate 1 priority value.
D. Count the number of activities in diagram and evaluate the complexity of the diagram to provide
a value and calculate a priority value.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A BPM analyst is documenting process problems during a discovery session. As a problem is
raised, what are the two key factors the BPM analyst needs to capture about each problem to be
able to prioritize them later?
A. The solution to the problem.
B. When the problem first occurred and how often it occurred in each milestone.
C. Severity and frequency of the problem at the process, milestone, or activity level.
D. Who is the participant when the problem occurs and what other tasks does that participant
complete.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A BPM analyst is modeling the process for acquiring membership at a club. The BPM analyst
interviewed the front office supervisor, who provided the following description of the first activity
"Enter Application": "One of our receptionists receives a paper application from a potential client,
an applicant. The receptionist first looks up the client's name and address to see if it exists in our
system, then enters the information from the paper application into the system, and assigns a
membership number to the application. When the application entry is complete, the receptionist
sends it to the manager for an initial review." The BPM analyst has created the discovery map and
now needs to enter information from the above description into the Details fields in Blueworks Live
for the activity "Enter Application". For the activity "Enter Application", who is the Supplier?
A. Manager
B. Applicant
C. Receptionist
D. Front Office Supervisor
Answer: B

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NO.8 A new employee just started working with a company and only received their laptop in week 4.
The BPM analyst investigated the cause:
-Equipment was not ordered until week 2
-The manager did not complete the new hire checklist.
-The manager did not know how to access the checklist.
-No one communicated to the manager how to access the checklist.
-No communication plan for the on-boarding process.
-The root cause of the initial problem was that no one communicated to the manager there was a
checklist.
Which tool did the BPM analyst use in order to find out the root cause?
A. 5 Whys
B. 5 Whats
C. 5 Whens
D. 5 Whos
Answer: A

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NO.1 TMS has a collaborative network of the following:
A. Carrier
B. Vendor
C. Customer
D. Both A and B.
Answer: D

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NO.2 TMS can be used to manage which of the following transportation modes?
A. Truckload
B. Less than truckload (LTL)
C. Intermodal
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Shipments from a Vendor/Supplier or Customer (Return) location, direct to Plant,
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A. Inbound Shipments
B. Outbound Shipments
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NO.1 In addition to Incentive Compensation Management and Territory Management, which
activities can be accomplished with IBM's Business Analytics SPM Solutions?
A. A Channel Management and Quota Planning
B. Customer Relationship Management and Channel Management
C. Sales Forecasting and Quota Planning
D. Customer Relationship Management and Sales Forecasting
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which aspect of IBM's Business Analytics FPM solutions is most likely to appeal to a CIO or IT
director?
A. Leverage existing ERP investments with proven solutions
B. Keep the look and feel of Excel, but in an automated driver-based model
C. Avert surprises from financial and operational performance
D. Gain early insights to enable redirection relative to corporate goals
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement is TRUE about integration between IBM Business Analytics Performance
Management solutions and ERP platforms?
A. Vendor consolidation leads to better integration.
B. BI and PM solutions offered by ERP vendors support all ERP environments equally.
C. IBM Cognos PM products work well with any ERP environment
D. Using the same vendor for PM and ERP process results in a lower total cost of ownership.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following characteristics positions IBM's Enterprise Disclosure Management
solution when electronic filing is a key requirement?
A. Timely, accurate delivery of performance reports and narrative analysis to internal and external
stakeholders.
B. Standardize and automate manual processes
C. Speeds and simplifies creation of reports that require use of XBRL - i.e. extensible business
reporting language
D. Reduces the risk of errors inherent in spreadsheet-based processes and activities
Answer: A

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NO.5 A sales representative has just secured a meeting with a manager in the CFO's office. What
tactic should they avoid for this initial meeting?
A. Be credible.
B. Be a strategic resource.
C. Focus on the customer.
D. Focus on the sale.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of following statements is TRUE regarding the benefits of IBM's Business Analytics SPM
solutions for management and sales executives?
A. Scenario modeling helps determine appropriate plan changes resulting in better decision making
B. Input forms and Presenter allow quick changes to data and reports.
C. Visibility into details viewed by direct reports helps resolve inquiries faster.
D. Process Lists keep common tasks organized and ensure nothing is missed.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following buyer roles is typically not seen in the SPM sales cycle?
A. Finance
B. IT
C. Marketing
D. HR
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer is concerned that the organization expends a lot of effort preparing narrative
reports which leaves little-to-no time to perform analysis and improve performance of the
organization.
What aspects of IBM's Enterprise Disclosure Management solutions will primarily meet the needs of
this customer?
A. Structure & automate low value, manual and error prone processes
B. Scale to large user communities and data sets
C. Integrate disparate data sources
D. Applies security and access controls
Answer: A

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NO.1 How are the build order and tab order related?
A.The tab order is always the same as the build order.
B.The build order defines the default tab order.
C.They are not related.
D.The tab order is never the same as the build order.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT a valid XFDL data type?
A.currency
B.integer
C.float
D.negativeInteger
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements regarding XML is TRUE?
A.All XML elements must be properly closed.
B.XML documents must have a DTD (Document Type Definition) file.
C.All XML elements must be lower case.
D.XML tags are not case sensitive.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Complete the following statement.The artifact created in the IBM Forms Designer is:
A.A dynamic PDF document.
B.An XML document that conforms to the XFDL schema.
C.An XML document with embedded Javascript if HTML extensions were used.
D.An XML document or an HTML document depending on the rendering mode that was defined.
Answer: B

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NO.5 In order to use Relative Positioning to position object B below object A, which of the following MUST
be true?
A.Object A and Object B must either both be XFDL items, or both be XForms items.
B.Object B is inside the same xforms:pane as Object A.
C.Object B appears further down the page (not directly below) than Object A.
D.Object B appears below Object A in the Form's build order.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Charlie has been tasked with creating a dropdown menu whose choices are dependent on the selection
of another dropdown on the form.He has created the following XPath query in the dropdown's nodeset:
What does the function current() do?
A.Returns the current element.
B.Returns the id of the current node.
C.Returns the context back to the "Generated" instance so that the selected_category element is
referenced.
D.Returns the context back to the "frozenTreatsData" instance so that the selected_category element is
referenced.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Jane is given an XML schema by her company's IT department, and is asked to build an IBM Form that
captures data according to that schema.How can Jane build the form?
A.IBM Forms does not support schemas, so this is not possible.
B.Using IBM Forms Designer, Jane can drag and drop the schema onto her form page.The Designer
automatically creates the appropriate UIitems according to what was specified in the schema.
C.Using IBM Forms Designer, Jane embeds the schema into her form, creates an instance of that
schema, then drags and drops from theinstance onto the form.The Designer then creates the appropriate
UI items according to what was specified in the schema.
D.Jane has to use another tool to create an XML instance of the schema.She adds the XML instance to
her form using IBM Forms Designer, thendrags and drops from the instance onto the form.The Designer
then creates the appropriate UI items according to what was specified in theschema.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following components must be installed when using IBM Forms with Workflow?
A.IBM Forms Server
B.Tivoli Access Manager
C.Lotus Quickr
D.WebSphere Portal
Answer: A

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NO.1 A developer used wsimport to generate the skeleton code for a Web service implementation.
What is the purpose of the generated ObjectFactory class?
A. The ObjectFactory class is the generated Service Endpoint Interface class
B. The ObjectFactory class is the generated service provider class that is used by the JAX-WS client.
C. The ObjectFactory class takes the targetNamespace value and creates the directory structure.
D. The ObjectFactory class allows you to programatically construct new instances of the Java
representation for XML content.
Answer: D

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NO.2 The TCP/IP Monitor can be used to check the following:
A. SOAP/JMS
B. HTTP Header
C. WSDL document
D. SOAP messages
E. WS-I Compliance
Answer: BDE

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NO.3 Which of the following is used to invoke a Web service from an unmanaged client?
A. JAX-WS dispatch API
B. Deployment descriptor
C. @Resource annotation
D. @WebServiceRef annotation
E. Service and Interface classes
Answer: AE

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NO.4 Which of the following business scenarios is the LEAST appropriate for Web services?
A. Expanding the reach of your company information.
B. Providing transactional services such as credit card payment processing.
C. Making existing services available to a business process to orchestrate services.
D. Enabling interoperability between heterogeneous services to create time-critical solutions.
Answer: D

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NO.5 The WS-I Simple SOAP Binding Profile V1.0 mandates that a message must serialize the envelope
according to which specification?
A. XML 1.0
B. WSDL 1.1
C. SOAP 1.1
D. HTTP 1.0
Answer: A

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NO.6 A company has a high business value JAX-WS provider Web Service and cannot afford to lose any
messages.
What kind of quality of service should be used in conjunction with WS-ReliableMessaging?
A. Managed persistent
B. Managed non-persistent
C. Unmanaged non-persistent
D. Managed persistent and Transaction (enableTransactionalOneWay)
E. Managed non-persistent and Transaction (enableTransactionalOneWay)
F. Unmanaged non-persistent and Transaction (enableTransactionalOneWay)
Answer: D

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NO.7 A company is migrating their current JAX-WS Web service running on IBM WebSphere Application
Server V6.1 with the Feature Pack for Web Services to V7.0. The company wants to continue to support
V6.1 service consumers.
If the Web service has WS-AtomicTransaction enabled, what settings should be configured to support the
widest range of clients?
A. Set the WS-AtomicTransaction to "Never" in WS-Transaction policy of the policy set
B. Set the WS-AtomicTransaction to "Supports" in WS-Transaction policy of the policy set
C. Set the WS-AtomicTransaction to "Mandatory" in WS-Transaction policy of the policy set
D. Set the "Default WS-Tx specification level" to "1.0" in application policy set bindings
E. Set the "Default WS-Tx specification level" to "1.1" in application policy set bindings
Answer: BD

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NO.8 Refer to the message in the exhibit.
Replace the ??? in the message with the appropriate namespace.
A. http://www.w3.org/2003/05/soap-envelope
B. http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/
C. http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap12/envelope/
D. http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap11/envelope/
Answer: A

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