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Exam Code: HP2-Z05
Exam Name: HP (Selling the HP ProCurve Portfolio)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 What is a VLAN?
A. a LAN that does not use wires and is enabled by wireless technology
B. a large, geographically dispersed network consisting of two or more LANs
C. a network that allows secure private data to be sent through a public network
D. a logical division within a physical network that divides devices into separate broadcast
domains
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which OSI Layer functionality enables a switch to route traffic?
A. Network Layer (Layer 3)
B. Physical Layer (Layer 1)
C. Data Link Layer (Layer 2)
D. Transport Layer (Layer 4}
Answer: A

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NO.3 A company's private network is divided into several subnets. Which devices can allow traffic to flow
between the subnets? (Select two.)
A. router
B. hub
C. standalone access point
D. Layer 2 switch
E. Layer 3 switch
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 What enables you to configure HP ProCurve products and create offers and quotations based on those
configurations?
A. HPProCurve Network Design Center
B. HPProCurve Configurator
C. HPProCurve Product Portfolio poster
D. HPProCurve Networking Quick Reference Guide
Answer: B

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NO.5 What has HP ProCurve designed in several of its high-speed switches to consolidate the function of
many individual chips, including software, onto a single chip?
A. VoIP
B. ASIC
C. IPS
D. PoE
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP3-024
Exam Name: HP (HP Color LaserJet 4700 series)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Automatic calibration occurs for which events? Select THREE.
A. whenever the device comes out of power save mode
B. when the printer is powered on after having been powered down for longer than 20 seconds
C. whenever a brand new print cartridge is installed in the printer
D. when 1,000 pages have printed since the last calibration
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 The HP Color LaserJet 4700 automatically calibrates and cleans at certain times to maintain
optimum print quality. Which of the following conditions cause the device to perform a color-plane
registration (CPR)? Select THREE.
A. one or more print cartridges are installed that have not previously been installed in the printing device
B. 10,000 pages have printed since the last calibration
C. 'Full Calibrate Now' is requested through the control panel
D. the ETB is replaced
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 For what reason should you disassemble and then replace the paper feed assembly?
A. if repeated paper jams occur due to excessive paper skew
B. if replacing feed rollers and adjusting paper skew sensors do not solve repeated jam errors
C. if the mediasensor value no longer matches the value on the label located on the paper feed
assembly
D. the paper feed assembly can be replaced as a full unit but should never be disassembled
Answer: D

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NO.4 Before performing an engine test on the HP Color LaserJet 4700ph+,________.
A. the printing device must be powered off
B. the printing device must be power-cycled
C. the output device connection cable must be detached from the printing device
D. the output device and output accessory bridge must be removed
Answer: B

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NO.5 When installing drum drive motors from service parts________.
A. the motors are optimized for any color and can be used with any color
B. each color (C, M, Y, K) has its own drum drive motor part number, optimized for that color
C. all motors must be replaced as a set
D. the fusible link burns up and resets the drum driver counters
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP3-C27
Exam Name: HP (SMB Printing and Imaging sales)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 41 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 What has been the effect of the global economic downturn on printing and imaging? (Select two.)
A. Fewer pages are being printed.
B. Refilled and remanufactured ink cartridges have increased in quality.
C. All new product purchases are on hold.
D. Printing and imaging product lifecycles are longer.
E. Inkjet printers are replacing laser printers.
Answer: B, C

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NO.2 How can resellers use print management engagement to increase revenue and profit?
A. Resellers can up-sell from color printers to mono-only printers.
B. Resellers can move from transactional sales to selling service-based contracts.
C. Resellers can up-sell from HP Laser printer to HP Large Format printers.
D. Resellers can move from selling HP PCs and servers to selling HP ProCurve products.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the fundamental difference between the HP print business in the 1980s and their print business
today?
A. In the 1980s, HP business focused around the provision print services.
B. In the 1980s, HP business focused simply around the sale of printers.
C. In the 1980s, HP business focused around data center printing.
D. In the 1980s, HP business focused around printer support contracts.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the prediction for the number of digitally printed pages as a percentage of all pages?
A. 70%
B. 90%
C. 10%
D. 0.5%
Answer: B

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NO.5 According to HP and other market segmentations, how many employees would you expect to find in a
lower mid-market organization.?
A. 100 to 499 employees
B. 2000 to 2999 employees
C. 400 to 599 employees
D. 999 to1999 employees
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-M39
Exam Name: HP (HP QuickTest Professional 10.0 Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 In which Options tab can you set the option to minimize the space your stored test will require?
A. Active Screen
B. General
C. Run
D. Environment
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are examples of a visual cue condition? (Select two.)
A. A button becomes visible.
B. A record is inserted in the database.
C. A progress bar displays.
D. A button becomes enabled.
E.A bitmap displays.
Answer: AD

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NO.3 Which actions can you perform using the Active Screen? (Select two.)
A. Modify objects.
B. Insert standard checkpoints.
C. Insert XML checkpoints.
D. Insert transactions.
E.Insert steps.
Answer: BE

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NO.4 What is a QuickTest Professional test comprised of.?
A. calls to actions
B. calls to actions (reusable only)
C. calls to QuickTest Professional tests
D. calls and copies of actions
Answer: A

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NO.5 Click Next or More to continue. Click the Task button. Click on the timeout value for the
synchronization point defined in the script shown in the screenshot.
Answer:

NO.6 During the planning phase, you decide to create multiple actions that can be combined and reused to
achieve testing goals.
Which element is critical for identifying the actions to be recorded and how to combine them?
A. input data
B. parameters
C. initial and end conditions
D. visual cues
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which QuickTest Professional feature displays the recorded steps in graphical format?
A. Data Table
B. Active Screen
C. Keyword View
D. Expert View
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which QuickTest Professional features can be customized using the Customize menu command?
(Select two.)
A. Menus
B. General options
C. Test Settings
D. Active Screen
E.Toolbars
Answer: AE

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NO.9 Identify the available column names in the Keyword View. (Select four.)
A. value
B. documentation
C. object
D. record settings
E.property
F. method G. operation H. item
Answer: ABGH

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NO.10 What are the advantages of automated testing? (Select three.)
A. easier
B. consistent
C. reusable
D. proactive
E. abstract
F. productive
Answer: BCF

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NO.11 Which term is used to define the name QuickTest Professional assigns to a recorded object?
A. Physical Name
B. Object Name
C. Repository Name
D. Logical Name
Answer: D

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NO.12 How can you add recordable or nonrecordable operations to your test? (Select three.)
A. Use the Step Generator.
B. Insert through Keyword View.
C. Drag objects from the object repository.
D. Drag objects from the Active Screen.
E. Drag objects from Available Keywords.
F. Drag objects from the Data Table.
Answer: ABE

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NO.13 How does QuickTest Professional identify each object you record?
A. by class and properties
B. by class and methods
C. by methods and properties
D. by class only
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which Active Screen capture level is the default setting?
A. Complete
B. Limited
C. Partial
D. Minimum
Answer: C

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NO.15 You record and save your test on a shared network drive as SampleWebTest.
What is created on the shared drive?
A. a file named SampleWebTest.qtp
B. a folder named SampleWebTest
C. a file named SampleWebTest_Action1
D. a temporary folder structure
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-S28
Exam Name: HP (Intergrating & Managing HP Blade System Solutions in Enterprise)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 208 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Which method is recommended when deploying a Windows 2008 operating system on an Integrity
Server Blade?
A. Use make_net_recovery
B. Use HP Insight Rapid Deployment software
C. Use third-party imaging tools
D. Use EFI management options
Answer: B

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NO.2 Detecting a clustered host failure is accomplished by monitoring the heartbeats sent between the hosts.
You plan to test the heartbeat connection to cause a failover. Which networks are used in VMware for the
heartbeats? (Select two.)
A. On ESX hosts, a VMkernel network is used.
B. On ESXi hosts, a VMkernel network is used.
C. On ESX hosts, the service console network is used.
D. On ESXi hosts, the service console network is used.
Answer: BC

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NO.3 You want to receive an email notification if a blade in a particular enclosure has a hardware failure.
Where do you navigate in HP SIM to accomplish this.?
A. Tasks > Alerts > Paging
B. User > Event Notification > Email
C. Options > Events > Automatic Event Handling
D. Options > User Notifications > Email Distributor
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which HP Enterprise Virtual Array snapshot concept is shown in the exhibit?
Exhibit:
A. Snapclone
B. Demand-allocated snapshot
C. Mirrorclone
D. Fully-allocated snapshot
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the recommended resource to determine the power and cooling requirements of your
configuration?
A. HP BladeSystem Power Sizer
B. HP ProLiant Cooling Advisor
C. HP Thermal Logic
D. HP BladeSystem Spreadsheet
Answer: A

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NO.6 When configuring Virtual Connect local accounts using CLI, which access privileges can be assigned?
(Select three.)
A. Domain
B. Server
C. User
D. Storage
E. Administrator
F. Operator
Answer: ABD

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NO.7 What must be done to keep previous user credentials when upgrading an HP Systems Insight Manager
Central Management Server (CMS) from version 3.0 to a current version?
A. Use the CMS Import Utility.
B. Use the Database Converter Tool.
C. Use the CMS Migration Tool.
D. Use the Database Upgrade Utility.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which HP offering helps IT staff to use their systems more efficiently, resulting in a higher return on IT
investments?
A. Education Services
B. OpenView Storage Mirroring
C. Customer Self Repair
D. SupportPlus Services
Answer: A

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NO.9 The customer wants to upgrade the memory in an existing BL460 G6. Using the HP DDR3 Memory
Configuration Tool, what is the easiest way to examine the existing memory configuration?
A. Use Insight Diagnostics on the involved blade.
B. Use memconfig and upload that information.
C. Use the HP System Management Homepage.
D. Upload the diag.log to the Memory Config Tool.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which software components must be installed before you can install HP Insight Control? (Select two.)
A. Application Server Console
B. Microsoft iSCSI Initiator
C. Certificate Services
D. Internet Information Services
E. Email Services
Answer: BD

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NO.11 What are valid HP SIM report formats? (Select two.)
A. XML
B. RPT
C. RTF
D. CSV
E. DOC
Answer: AD

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NO.12 On what can Insight Control 6x Central Management Server (CMS) be installed? (Select two.)
A. Citrix XenServer 4.5 using Windows 2003 Standard SP2 virtual machine
B. Citrix XenServer 5.5 using Windows 2008 Standard R2 virtual machine
C. VMware ESX 3.5 Update 4 using Windows 2003 Standard SP2 virtual machine
D. Microsoft Hyper-V Server 2008 R2 using Windows 2008 R2 Enterprise 32-bit virtual machine
E. VMware ESX 4 using Windows 2003 Enterprise SP1 virtual machine
F. Microsoft Server 2008 R2 with Hyper-V using Windows 2003 Enterprise SP2 32-bit virtual machine
Answer: CF

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NO.13 Click the Task button. Click on the Windows option that allows a system administrator to install HP
Insight Control on a Windows server that will be used to deploy Linux servers
Answer:

NO.14 When designing a BladeSystem hardware solution in order to prevent system failures, which questions
should you ask? (Select two.)
A. How much money or productivity is lost per minute of downtime?
B. What administrative efforts are required to fix problems?
C. When was the last failure?
D. What is the duration of the backup window?
E. What is the disk I/O throughput?
Answer: AB

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NO.15 A customers c7000 enclosure has 10 fans installed. The fan in bay 2 fails. There are no blades that are
powered on in device bays 5 through 8 or in device bays 13 through 16. Which statements are true in this
situation? (Select two.)
A. The fan subsystem is no longer redundant.
B. The fan subsystem is still redundant.
C. The blade in device bay 2 powers down.
D. The failed fan is marked failed.
E. The failed fan is marked as degraded.
F. The blade in device bay 1 powers down.
Answer: BD

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NO.16 Which HP resource can help to plan and verify a consolidated storage infrastructure in combination
with an HP BladeSystem solution?
A. HP Replication Systems Manager
B. HP Storage Sizing Tool
C. HP SAN Design Reference Guide
D. HP SalesBuilder for Windows
Answer: C

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NO.17 You want to restart the Virtual Connect Manager after changes are made. Which CLI command should
you use to accomplish this?
A. reipl vcm
B. reload vcm
C. reboot vcm
D. reset vcm
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which statement is true about managing ESX hosts that are controlled by a second Virtual Center
server?
A. Each Virtual Center server needs an extra license for HP SIM.
B. Insight Control must be version 6.0 or greater.
C. The total number of virtual machines managed by a Virtual Center server must not exceed 200.
D. Virtual Center servers managed by one SIM server need to be on the same subnet.
Answer: B

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NO.19 The customer has an environment of multiple web servers and two database servers all running on
Microsoft Windows 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition. The requirement is to provide high availability for data
and efficient access to the web farm. Which solution meets the needs of this customer?
A. A Network Load Balancing (NLB) environment for both the web servers and database servers
B. A Network Load Balancing (NLB) environment for the web servers and a quorum disk model server
cluster to provide high availability for the database servers
C. A rotating standby cluster to support the web farm and a quorum disk model server cluster to provide
high availability for the database servers
D. A Network Load Balancing (NLB) environment for the web servers and a Majority Node Set (MNS)
server cluster to provide high availability for the database servers
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which statement is correct regarding the subnet manager when designing an HP BladeSystem
solution using InfiniBand in a Windows environment?
A. A subnet manager has to be installed on a Linux host.
B. A subnet manager is automatically installed on the first InfiniBand module.
C. A subnet manager can run host-based and switch-based.
D. A subnet manager is optional.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-Y39
Exam Name: HP (Managing & Troubleshooting Enterprise Wireless Networks)
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Total Q&A: 84 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 You set your country of operation and then apply the default Sensor Configuration Template settings to
all sensors in RF Manager. How do your sensors handle channels that cannot be used legally in your
country?
A. The sensors scan these channels and detect threats, but they do not take action against the threats.
B. The sensors scan these channels, detect threats, and take the action you have specified against any
detected threats.
C. The sensors scan these channels and prevent any authorized access points or clients from operating
on these channels.
D. The sensors do not scan these channels for threats.
Answer: A

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NO.2 RF Manager has determined that a Rogue access point (AP) must be quarantined. The only sensor
within range is listed as busy. What happens?
A. RF Manager reclassifies the new Rogue AP as banned so that it cannot connect on the wired side.
B. RF Manager specifies that a quarantine is pending for the new Rogue AP until the sensor is no longer
busy.
C. The sensor stops quarantining one of the currently quarantined devices and starts quarantining the
new Rogue AP.
D. The sensor splits its time between blocking the currently quarantined devices and the new Rogue AP.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Students are experiencing slow
network performance, and some clients are having difficulty connecting to the wireless network. The IT
staff installed wireless access points (APs) over a year ago. Previous classes, consisting of 200 students
had no problems. Based on the exhibits, what is a solution to optimize performance for all students?
A. Enable radio 1 on all APs.
B. Add service-template1 to all 2.4Ghz radios.
C. Remove service-template1 from all 5Ghz radios.
D. Set cipher-suite to ccmp for service-template1.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is a potential risk of enabling the RSSI-based classification feature in an Authorized WLAN
policy?
A. RF Manager must rely exclusively on RSSI to detect the locations of harmful devices, instead of
drawing on the findings of network detectors. This might make the prediction less accurate.
B. Sensors might decide that they should not take action against a potentially harmful device because its
RSSI is low and the device might still be a risk.
C. RF Manager might classify your own access points (APs) as Rogue APs because their transmit power
is too high and take action against them.
D. RF Manager might classify legitimate access points (APs) owned by nearby companies as Rogue APs
and take action against them.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Wireless access points (APs) are
installed to provide access to the school's video servers. Students running 802.11n clients are not seeing
optimal bandwidth connection data rates. Based on the exhibits, what is a solution to optimize 802.11n
data rates?
A. Disable High Throughput (HT mode) on all radios.
B. Disable RTS/CTS capability on non-802.11n client NICs.
C. Configure Band Steering mode on radio 1 on all APs and radio 2 on AP3 and AP5.
D. Configure Greenfield mode on radio1 on all APs and radio 2 on AP3 and AP5.
Answer: D

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NO.6 By default, which roles do the RF Manager and its sensors perform in detecting Rogue access points
(APs)?
A. Sensors monitor wireless transmissions and RF Manager monitors wired transmissions. They combine
the data to find APs that use your SSIDs but are not on your network.
B. Sensors monitor wireless transmissions and RF Manager monitors wired transmissions. They combine
the data to find unauthorized APs on your network.
C. Sensors monitor wired and wireless transmissions so RF Manager can find unauthorized APs
connected to your wired network.
D. Sensors detect APs that use your SSIDs but are not on your Authorized AP list.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer is experiencing network performance issues with their wireless network. The customer
decides to take corrective actions on their wireless active controller. Based on the exhibit, what will
happen on the wireless network if the customer sent a 1200 byte packet from a wireless client associated
to essid HP_Openaccess? (Select two.)
A. The wireless packet will be fragmented.
B. The wireless packet will trigger RTS/CTS frames to be sent.
C. The wireless packet will not be fragmented.
D. The wireless packet will not trigger RTS/CTS frames to be sent.
E. The access point will send more Beacon frames than if the default configuration had been left
unchanged.
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 What are the requirements for deploying a sensor that is discovered by RF Manager with zero
configuration? (Select two.)
A. The sensor must operate in network detector (ND) mode.
B. The sensor must be installed on the same VLAN as RF Manager.
C. The network must be set up to assign the sensor IP settings through DHCP.
D. The DNS server must map the WiFi-security-server to the RF Manager IP address.
E. RF Manager and the sensor must both be at their default IP settings.
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Wireless access points (APs) are
installed to provide access to the school's video servers. All clients show maximum signal strength, but
some students are experiencing frequent interruptions of video playback. Based on the exhibits, what is a
solution to optimize network throughput for all students.?
A. setting maximum power on radio 1 on all APs
B. setting mandatory data rates for 802.11a to 12
C. changing the channel on radio 2 of AP5 to channel 6
D. lowering the RTS threshold on all radios
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the risk of applying intrusion prevention to an access point (AP) listed as Indeterminate?
A. RF Manager cannot determine whether the AP follows your Authorized WLAN policy. You might
quarantine your own AP, which could frustrate users.
B. RF Manager has classified the AP as Indeterminate because you authorized it manually, but it does not
follow your Authorized WLAN policy.
Quarantining your own AP could frustrate users.
C. RF Manager has classified the AP as Indeterminate because its signal is so low. Sensors will make
themselves busy in quarantining an AP that is probably too far away to be a risk.
D. RF Manager cannot determine whether the AP is connected to your system. You might quarantine
another company's AP, which is illegal.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Wireless access points (APs) are
installed to provide access to the school's video servers. Some students are experiencing frequent
interruptions to video playback while others have no issues. Based on the exhibits, what is a solution to
optimize performance for all students?
A. Set all radios to maximum power.
B. Set all APs to the same channel.
C. Enable load balancing of clients across APs.
D. Increase the beacon interval.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button and view the three exhibits.
RF Manager and its sensors have detected an association between an Uncategorized Client and an
access point (AP) that uses these settings:
SSID = Company C
Security = WPA2 with CCMP and 802.1X
The AP is detected while passing the client traffic on VLAN 20 (10.1.20.0/24). WiFi is permitted at this
location. The exhibits show the Authorized SSID Template, other Authorized WLAN Policy settings, and
the Intrusion Prevention Policy for the location.
What does RF Manager have its sensors do?
A. quarantine the AP only
B. quarantine the client only
C. take no action against either device
D. quarantine both the AP and the client
Answer: A

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NO.13 In sensor only (SO) mode, what does an HP sensor monitor?
A. It monitors only one untagged VLAN as well as wireless signals.
B. It monitors wireless signals, but does not monitor VLANs.
C. It monitors multiple VLANs as well as wireless signals.
D. It monitors multiple VLANs, but does not monitor wireless signals.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which action does RF Manager take to quarantine a client?
A. It instructs the client's access point to place the client's traffic in a quarantine VLAN.
B. It instructs a sensor to send a forced disassociation message to the client's access point (AP) so that
the AP forces the client to disconnect.
C. It instructs a sensor to send frames to interfere with the frames sent by the quarantined client.
D. It adds the client's MAC address to the access point's MAC lockout list, thereby blocking the client's
traffic.
Answer: C

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NO.15 A customer reports the performance of their HP A-WA2620E access point (AP) is inadequate. While
investigating the report, you determine that the AP is functioning in MIMO 3x2 mode instead of MIMO 3x3
as desired. What is one possible cause of this problem?
A. The AP is powered using 802.3af PoE.
B. The AP is configured to use a 40Mhz channel bandwidth.
C. The AP is not implementing the local switching feature.
D. The AP is powered using 802.3at PoE.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-Z19
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Network Security Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 121 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 What does the Threat Management Center (TMC) allow you to do? (Select three.)
A. Download TOS images.
B. Access knowledgebase articles.
C. Remotely log in to your IPS.
D. Download Digital Vaccines.
E. Download custom Digital Vaccines.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 Refer to the exhibit below.
You have configured IP helper addresses for VLAN 5 and VLAN 6 on this HP E5406 zl switch. However,
users in these VLANs report that their computers are not receiving DHCP addresses. Which feature must
be enabled to address this problem?
A. DNS
B. DHCP relay
C. IP routing
D. DHCP snooping
Answer: B

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6.Port B1 on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch is an untagged member of VLAN 155 and not a tagged
member of any VLAN. Port C1 is a tagged member of VLAN 155 and an untagged member of VLAN 100.
You issue the following command:
5406.l(config)# no vlan 155
Why do you receive the following prompt?
The following ports will be moved to the default VLAN:
B1Do you want to continue? [y/n]:
A. The CLI always issues this prompt when deleting a VLAN.
B. The CLI will not allow you to orphan a port.
C. The CLI will not delete a VLAN with any port membership.
D. All ports must be moved to the default VLAN before you can delete the VLAN.
Answer: A

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NO.3 By default, what is an IPS single super-user called?
A. By default, the single super-user is called root.
B. By default, the single super-user is called SuperUser.
C. By default, the single super-user is called admin.
D. There is no default user.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which remote management interface on an E-Series switch can be secured by enabling Secure
Sockets Layer (SSL)?
A. console
B. menu
C. web management
D. Telnet
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which categories of routing protocols include RIP and OSPF? (Select two.)
A. exterior gateway
B. link state
C. label switching
D. distance vector
E. interior gateway
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 A security administrator at a university has been tasked with identifying the TippingPoint IPS that
would best meet the university's needs. The university has a complex network, with a mixture of both fiber
and copper wiring. IPS protection must be provided for three copper segments and two fiber segments.
The aggregate bandwidth (with expansion capacity) is not expected to exceed 3Gbps over the next four
years.
Which TippingPoint IPS solution should the security administrator recommend?
A. 2 TippingPoint 330s and 1 TippingPoint 600E
B. TippingPoint 5000E or TippingPoint 5100N
C. TippingPoint SMS
D. TippingPoint 5100N only
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are at the manager level prompt in the CLI of an HP E3500 yl switch. Which options are available at
this prompt? (Select two.)
A. assign IP address to VLAN interface
B. enable IP routing
C. restart the switch
D. disable ports
E. update software
Answer: C,E

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NO.8 What is the serial console speed of an IPS?
A. 9600
B. 19200
C. 115,200
D. user configurable
Answer: C

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NO.9 What are benefits of implementing Secure Socket Shell (SSH) for remote management of HP switches?
(Select two.)
A. user accounting
B. encryption of management traffic
C. stronger passwords
D. enforcement of management VLAN
E. secure authentication
F. encryption of all traffic
Answer: B,E

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NO.10 How can the TippingPoint Threat Management Center (TMC) be accessed? (Select three.)
A. directly by your SMS, if your SMS has a valid TMC username/password
B. by anyone with a browser and valid TMC username/password
C. using an FTP client
D. directly by your IPS
E. directly by your SMS, as your SMS does not need a TMC username/password
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.11 What is the effect of the following commands entered at the CLI of an HP E8212 zl switch with routing
and RIP enabled?E8212(rip)# redistribute ospf
A. The switch will filter OSPF routes from RIP updates received from peers.
B. The switch will include routes learned through OSPF in all RIP updates.
C. The switch will include routes learned through RIP in all OSPF link-state messages.
D. The switch will give preference to OSPF routes over RIP routes in its route table.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which HP E-Series switch models display the following prompt in the interface configuration context?
(Select two.)HP Switch(eth-A24)#
A. E8212 zl
B. E6600-24G
C. E5412-96G zl
D. E2910-24G al
E. E3500-48G-POE yl
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.13 Refer to the exhibit below.
You enter the following command at the switch ¯ s C L I: E5406 ( v l a-100)# no untag a24
Why does this command fail?
A. Port A24 is not a member of VLAN 100.
B. Port A24 must be a member of at least one VLAN.
C. VLAN 100 must have at least one port member.
D. no untag a24 is an invalid CLI command.
Answer: B

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NO.14 You must update the software on an HP E3500 yl switch. Which devices can be sources for the copy
command? (Select two.)
A. USB flash drive
B. management workstation hard drive
C. TFTP server
D. FTP server
E. Compact Flash card
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 Which E-Series CLI commands enable you to view all show commands available in the current context?
(Select two.)
A. Switch# show /?
B. Switch# show all
C. Switch# show help
D. Switch# show ?
E. Switch# show <tab>
F. Switch# help show
Answer: D,E

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NO.16 A security administrator for a TippingPoint IPS suspects that an employee has logged into the IPS and
altered its configuration. How can the security administrator analyze and undo all of the unauthorized
changes?
A. by reviewing the IPS system log, searching for filter hits from the employee
B. by reviewing the IPS audit log, filtering by the employee ¯ s use r na m e and / o r I P adress
C. by reviewing the configuration changes listed in the IPS alert log
D. by reviewing the IPS block log (the employee would have been blocked)
Answer: B

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NO.17 Refer to the exhibit below.
What is indicated by this entry in the IP route table of an HP E8212 zl switch?
A. The switch has been configured with an ACL that blocks communications with the loopback interfaces.
B. The switch does not permit communications with any loopback interface.
C. Traffic to this interface is rejected with the single exception of traffic to the host address of the switch ¯ s
loopback interface (127.0.0.1/ 32).
D. A loopback interface is configured with 127.0.0.0.
Answer: C

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NO.18 You make configuration changes to the running configuration of your HP E3500 yl switch. Which
command saves these changes to your startup configuration?
A. save running-config
B. copy running-config startup-config
C. write memory
D. write config
Answer: C

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NO.19 Multiple user accounts can be created on an IPS device. Each can be assigned to one of three roles:
super-user, administrator, or operator. Which statements are true about these roles? (Select two.)
A. An administrator can reset the audit log.
B. A super-user can create new accounts and edit existing account passwords.
C. An operator is a view-only role.
D. Only the super-user can reboot an IPS.
Answer: B,C

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NO.20 Which security technology requires that you set read/write community names?
A. SFTP
B. SSH
C. SNMP
D. HTTPS
E. SMTP
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-M32
Exam Name: HP (Project and Portfolio Management Center 8.x Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Which display options are available on a decision workflow step? (Select two.)
A. Always
B. Conditional
C. Never
D. Only When Active
E. Immediate
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 Your manager asks you about setting up email notifications that can be triggered on a request. How
should you respond?
A. Notifications can be configured for any field on a request.
B. Notifications can be configured only on custom fields.
C. Notifications can be configured only on specific standard fields.
D. Notifications can be configured only on drop-down list boxes.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What must you edit to change the transition name from Complete to Approved?
A. the workflow validation value only
B. the workflow name only
C. the workflow validation value and the transition name
D. the workflow validation value and the workflow name
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which tab do you click on to check if a validation is being used by other entities?
A. Usage
B. Ownership
C. Used By
D. Values
Answer: C

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NO.5 Currently, all users can create an IS Release Calendar Change request. How do you change this so
only a specified group can create this request?
A. Make a copy of the request and update the workflow security.
B. Change the access grants for the specified group only.
C. Set Field Level restrictions to the specified group for any user-based data fields on the request type.
D. Go to User Access on the request type and configure the participant permissions.
E. Modify the ownership information for the request type.
Answer: D

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NO.6 When defining a timeout transition in a step source, which radio button do you click to define the
timeout?
A. Specific Event
B. Specific Result
C. Other errors
D. Specific Error
Answer: D

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NO.7 How do you enable tracking of scheduled and actual work appropriated to requests?
A. Manually create data fields on requests.
B. Manually create data fields on requests and link to resources.
C. Enable the Work Item field group.
D. Enable the Demand Management Scheduling Fields field group.
E. Set the corresponding field attributes.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What are the workflow step sources? (Select three.)
A. Conditions
B. Flowcharts
C. Executions
D. Decisions
E. Graphics
F. Boolean
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.9 What is the main function of a workflow parameter?
A. It allows you to capture additional data that a request type is unable to capture to be shown in the
request type as a field.
B. It allows you to capture the result of a workflow step and use this result to direct other stages in the
process.
C. It allows you to capture the value of a field in the request type and use this value to direct other stages
in the process.
D. It allows you to capture the result of a workflow step and use this result to prompt the user for input.
Answer: B

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NO.10 On the Request for Change request type, the user wants the Approved By field to be required when the
selected value for the Environment equals Production. What should you do to accomplish this?
A. Configure the Request Field Status Dependencies.
B. Create a simple default rule for the request type and set the event to Apply on Creation.
C. Create an advanced request type rule using SQL Default Logic.
D. Create an advanced request type rule using UI Rule Logic.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-B61
Exam Name: HP (HP Imaging and Printing Management and Security Solutions-Technical)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Why is job accounting information gathered and utilized for billing and pay-for-use?
(Select three.)
A. to aid in installing, configuring and managing printer fleets remotely
B. to demonstrate that a company is making efforts to protect information
C. to gather data so it can be encrypted for security reasons
D. to track network usage and make network telephony changes
E. to show proof of compliance to regulators
F. to detect abuse of information sharing and digital communication outside the company
G. to create an electronic workflow for archiving hard copies
Answer: C,D,F

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NO.2 Why must the imaging and printing environment be secure.?
A. Most imaging and printing devices are no longer simple network appliances.
B. Most imaging and printing devices are network appliances and need protection from physical theft.
C. NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technologies) requires it.
D. IEEp2600 standards require it.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are components in the HP Imaging and Printing Security framework? (Select four.)
A. Secure your data.
B. Secure your printing devices.
C. Protect your printed documents.
D. Improve workflow through authenticating network devices.
E. Reduce network traffic.
F. Monitor and manage your printing fleet.
G. Enable print job tracking and accounting.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.4 Why are job accounting audit trails useful for imaging and printing devices?
A. They restrict the use of color printing as needed.
B. They demonstrate that printers are being used.
C. They demonstrate that regulatory compliance is taking place.
D. They are used in accountant offices during tax season.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which competitive advantages does HP offer for security when combined with printing and imaging
devices? (Select three.)
A. HP approaches security holistically.
B. HP partners with hacker organizations.
C. HP is the undeniable expert in securing and backing up networked data.
D. HP Web Jetadmin is the industry leading utility for managing imaging and printing devices.
E. HP is the undisputed leader in imaging and printing.
F. HP encrypts all printer data before sending it across a network.
Answer: A,C,E

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Exam Code: HP2-H13
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Retail Point of Sale Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 82 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Retailers must address several critical factors in order to build sustainable businesses. Which of these
factors can HP help with?
A. floor space
B. price
C. merchandising
D. brand equity
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are competing with IBM for the business of a large customer that requires a POS solution installed
in their Warehouse Sales Store facilities. One of the customer's decision criteria is the cost of supporting
and maintaining the solution after the sale. Which HP Point of Sale benefit should you emphasize with this
customer that gives you an advantage in this competitive situation?
A. integration with existing powered peripherals
B. support of next generation powered peripherals
C. strong global service and support organization
D. HP three-year warranty on the POS and peripherals
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which feature of HP Thermal Receipt Printers extends the service life?
A. advanced exchange warranty
B. built-in liquid dam with drainage
C. ceramic auto-cutter and printhead
D. powered USB cable operation
Answer: C

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NO.4 On which message should you focus when your customer asks you why they should buy HP-branded
peripherals?
A. simpler installation with HP Point of Sale products
B. standard HP warranty that can reduce Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)
C. longer lifecycle due to improved reliability
D. easy ordering process and available financing
Answer: B

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NO.5 How many keys is your customer able to configure on an HP POS keyboard?
A. 7
B. 14
C. 28
D. 56
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which HP Point of Sale system simplifies peripheral selection?
A. ap5700
B. rp5700
C. ap5000
D. rp5000
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is a brief, but accurate description of the HP ap5000 that you can provide a customer?
A. a compact and affordable Point of Sale solution
B. a touch enabled All-in-One Point of Sale solution
C. a powerful modular Point of Sale solution
D. a Retail Hardened Point of Sale solution
Answer: C

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NO.8 A customer is planning to install their point of sale system under the counter. You suggest they use the
HP rp5700 because it supports operation temperatures higher than most PCs can maintain. How is the
HP rp5700 vented to support this capability?
A. front and back
B. top and bottom
C. right and left sides
D. all six surfaces
Answer: A

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NO.9 How is the on/off switch on the rp5700 Point of Sale system configured to help avoid accidental
shutdowns?
A. located in back with delay
B. located in front and covered
C. located in front and recessed
D. located on side with delay
Answer: C

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NO.10 Your customer is buying a modular HP Point of Sale system. They want a display that provides
information to their customers. Which HP peripheral meets this customer's needs?
A. two-line pole display
B. two-sided display panel
C. 10.4 " customer-facing monitor
D. integrated customer display
Answer: A

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NO.11 A customer is considering using a PC configured as a Point of Sale solution. What is a unique HP Point
of Sale feature that would help this customer consider an HP POS solution?
A. systems engineered to support long lifecycles
B. lower purchase price for HP POS solution
C. easy integration with the customer's back office system
D. the 3-year standard warranty offered on HP POS
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which touchscreen monitor size is offered as an option for HP Point of Sale systems?
A. 11 inch diagonal
B. 13 inch diagonal
C. 15 inch diagonal
D. 17 inch diagonal
Answer: C

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NO.13 You are working with a customer who is environmentally conscious and is specifically interested in
energy consumption. Which benefit should you focus on to help justify a decision for the HP ap5000.?
A. designed and tested for a retail environment
B. Energy Star 5.0 and EPEAT Silver qualified
C. reduced heat with 64GB Solid State Drive
D. choice of energy-efficient peripherals
Answer: B

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NO.14 What makes the ports on an HP Point of Sale system different from those on a PC?
A. aligned in order of importance
B. large, easy-to-read labels
C. labeled port covers
D. powered USB ports
Answer: C

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NO.15 Your customer is refreshing their Point of Sale systems and wants to integrate them into their existing
environment. Which feature makes it possible to meet this customer's need?
A. extensive connectivity
B. retail hardened design
C. energy efficient design
D. industry standard technology
Answer: D

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