2014年1月31日星期五

ASQ CQE exam pdf dumps

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Exam Code: CQE
Exam Name: ASQ (Quality Engineer Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 162 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Which of the following quality gurus was very critical of merit-pay and individual bonuses?
He discouraged management by objectives and the ranking of employees by performance.
A. Dr. Juran
B. Dr. Deming
C. Dr. Taguchi
D. Dr. Feigenbaum
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are the major disadvantages of having an improvement team that is too large?
. Difficulty in having constructive input from the entire group.
. Difficulty in arriving at consensus.
. Difficulty in finding large meeting facilities.
. Difficulty, on the part of the recorder, in keeping up with more paperwork.
A. Ionly
B. IandIIonly
C. I,IIandIIIonly
D. I, II,IIIandIV
Answer: B

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NO.3 In most cases, an improvement team facilitator will NOT normally:
A. Be familiar with problem solving techniques.
B. Provide feedback to the group.
C. Function as the group leader.
D. Summarize key ideas generated by the group.
Answer: C

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NO.4 The ideal results of a quality training effort would NOT include which of the following?
A. Increased cost-of-quality results.
B. Improved working methods and morale.
C. Increased productivity and job satisfaction.
D. Reduced defects and employee turn-over.
Answer: A

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NO.5 During the building phase of improvement team development, which of the following properly
describes team activities?
. The team leader is usually directive.
. The team leader often delegates tasks.
. Team members prioritize and perform duties.
. Team members are uncertain of their duties.
A. IIandIIIonly
B. I,IIandIIIonly
C. IandIV only
D. II,IIIandIV only
Answer: C

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NO.6 An improvement in quality costs is MOST clearly indicated when:
A. Appraisal and failure costs drop.
B. Prevention costs increase.
C. Total quality costs fall below 15% of total sales.
D. Management objectives are met.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Information that is received by upper management, is often distorted. Which of the following
actions is effective in countering this problem?
. Stop killing the messenger.
. Establishing an open door policy.
. Practice management by walking around.
A. Ionly
B. IandIIonly
C. IandIIIonly
D. I,IIandIII
Answer: D

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NO.8 Benchmarking might be defined as any of the following EXCEPT:
A. A process for rigorously measuring your performance versus the best-in-class companies.
B. A standard of excellence or achievement against which other similar things must be measured
orjudged.
C. Comparing the performance of one company to a set of standards and then to
another'sperformance.
D. The search for best industry practices that lead to superior performance.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following is the BEST method to developing materials for a training program on
the
gaps in performance?
A. Secure a workshop trainer.
B. Review a record of activities.
C. Set up a one shot case study.
D. Allocate employees for training.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following is NOT considered a prevention cost?
A. Writing operating procedures.
B. Training.
C. Data acquisition and analysis.
D. Calibrating test equipment.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: MSC-111
Exam Name: Motorola Solutions (Design Point (PTP and PMP) Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 114 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 What protocol does a Dynamic Domain name server work in conjunction with to dynamically create 'A'
address records?
A. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
B. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)
C. LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol)
D. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
Answer: D

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NO.2 Thermal Ducting is a phenomenon often seen over great distances of water and flat hot terrain. It is the
layering of different density air in the atmosphere and can cause significant signal fading. One possible
solution to Thermal Ducting is to:
A. use two physically separated single polarized antennas (also known as Space Diversity)
B. deploy a single polarization microwave system.
C. increase frequency to increase free space attenuation.
D. deploy a Dual Polarity antenna at both ends of a link.
Answer: A

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NO.3 The main function of an antenna is to:
A. add power to a signal,
B. decode radio signals into data traffic.
C. direct radio energy in a desired direction.
D. protect transmitters from lightning.
Answer: C

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NO.4 When installing a PMP Access Point antenna on a tower, you need to install it at the proper height.
Motorola recommended practice is to mount the antenna at least how many feet/meters below the top of
the tower to protect it from lightning?
A. 0 feet / meters
B. 2 feet/0.6 meters
C. 10 feet/3 meters
D. 25 feet / 8 meters
Answer: B

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NO.5 Spatial Diversity is an antenna configuration that can be used to help point to point links: A. over long
distances of water where reflections are causing cancellation,
B. when interference from multiple directions is an issue.
C. when wind loading constraints will not allow a dual polarized antenna.
D. if site access is restricted because of security issues.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Dynamic addressing simplifies network administration because the software keeps track of IP
addresses rather than requiring an administrator to manage the task. This means that a new device can
be added to a network without the hassle of manually assigning it a unique IP address.
Which of the following devices would typically use DHCP to get an address?
A. Switches/Hubs
B. Client/End Devices
C. Routers
D. Bridges
Answer: B

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NO.7 The reflection of a radio wave can affect the link quality:
A. negatively ONLY
B. positively ONLY
C. either negatively or positively
D. it does not affect link quality
Answer: C

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NO.8 During the early stages of the design process, the current and planned IP addressing scheme on the
project description template is used to check:
A. IP addressing conflicts with defaults.
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) configuration
C. IP addressing requirements for core and edge routers.
D. network component capacity design
Answer: A

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NO.9 As a general design guideline, the signal strength required to meet a specific target modulation must
be exceeded in order to guarantee reliable communications. What is this excess signal strength called?
A. Receive Strength Ratio
B. Fade Margin
C. Signal Strength Ratio
D. Diversity Margin
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the common term used to describe the process of limiting which VLAN IDs can traverse a
particular VLAN trunk port.?
A. VLAN Pruning
B. MVRP (Multiple VLAN Registration Protocol)
C. VTP (VLAN Trunk Protocol)
D. VLAN Sectioning
E. VLAN Negotiation
Answer: A

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NO.11 Refraction of a radio wave could be caused by:
A. lack of transmit power.
B. sun spots.
C. change in air density.
D. antenna height.
Answer: C

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NO.12 The amount of MAC addresses to Ethernet Port mappings in a switch is finite. What happens when the
available mappings in these lookup tables are exhausted?
A. The switch drops all traffic destined for MAC addresses that are not in the lookup tables
B. The switch caches all traffic destined for the MAC addresses that are not in the lookup tables until
entries become available
C. The switch sends a congestion notification out the port to throttle the traffic until the lookup tables have
available entries
D. The switch floods traffic for all MAC addresses that do not have a lookup entry out of all its ports
Answer: D

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NO.13 Among the options below, which are the first three items you should identify when troubleshooting
Spanning Tree Protocol errors (select THREE)?
A. Which bridge is the root bridge
B. How many IP gateways are on the L2 segment
C. The topology of the L2 segment inclusive of all bridges
D. The location of redundant links and which of their ports are blocked
E. Which links use fiberoptic to Ethernet converters
F. How many MAC addresses are on the L2 segment
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.14 Microwave Point to Point systems can be susceptible to Multi-path cancellation. Which technology can
help mitigate Multi-Path?
A. IEEE 802.3AF
B. OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency Division Duplex)
C. Transmit time diversity
D. RF port replication
Answer: B

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NO.15 High Performance parabolic directional antennas are used in FTP network designs and provide:
A. side lobe suppression and interference mitigation.
B. broadest (or widest) beamwidth
C. superior wind loading for storm prone areas.
D. consistent spectrum analysis.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: MSC-331
Exam Name: Motorola Solutions (Designing and Deploying Mobile Computing Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Your are having issues establishing radio communication on a mobile computer and you think
that the client radio output is the problem. In which of the following areas can you adjust the
mobile computers radio transmit power?
A. Fusion Options
B. System Options
C. Regulatory Options
D. Profile Management Options
E. You cannot change the mobile computers radio transmit power
Answer: E

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NO.2 Which of the following memory forms is used in most memory cards and solid-state drives?
A. NOR Flash
B. NAND Flash
C. Static Random Access Memory (SRAM)
D. Dynamic random-access memory (DRAM)
Answer: B

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NO.3 Motorola Enterprise Mobility Configuration Tools (EMCTs) are comprehensive tools designed
to assist in staging, provisioning, and troubleshooting, as well as improving the user experience with
Motorola Mobile Devices. Which of the following are Motorola EMCTs Tools (select THREE)?
A. StartupCtl
B. PowerTest
C. RemCapture
D. CtlPanelWM
E. Spread Spectrum Analyzer
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 The design phase of the pilot is an area that is often neglected. Which of the following is NOT
true regarding the design phase?
A. The best time to influence a pilot's trustworthy design is at pilot completion.
B. The design phase typically relies on information gathered from the planning phase.
C. Good pilot design should ensure or facilitate a framework for periodic project evaluation.
D. During the design phase you establish best practices to follow for this phase by way of functional
and design specifications, and you perform risk analysis to identify threats and vulnerabilities in
your pilot.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following 802.11 wireless supplicants are available and supported on Motorola
Solutions Mobile Computers (select TWO)?
A. Aegis
B. Fusion
C. Odyssey
D. Windows Zero Configuration
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 A client needs a mobile device solution that requires the following:
GSM and/or CDMA WWAN
Small Form Factor
Consumer Style Device
Occasional Barcode and Photo Capture
What would be the best mobile device selection from the mobile device portfolio?
A. ET1
B. ES400
C. MC75A
D. MC3190
E. MC9090G
Answer: B

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NO.7 The Enterprise Mobility Developers Kit (EMDK) for .NET allows Microsoft: .NET Compact
Framework developers to programmatically access the enterprise mobility features on the devices.
This developer kit is designed for use with all of the following versions of Microsoft Visual Studio
EXCEPT:
A. Microsoft Visual Studio 2003
B. Microsoft Visual Studio 2005
C. Microsoft Visual Studio 2008
D. Microsoft Visual Studio 2012
Answer: D

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NO.8 Your customer has selected a MC9190-G with a SE4500-SR scan engine. They are now asking
you what the maximum distance they can expect to scan 13 Mil standard UPC-A barcodes. Which of
the following would be your response?
Please reference the Technical Specifications exhibit at the bottom.
A. 6.8 in (17.27 cm)
B. 12.0 in (30.48 cm)
C. 15.5 in (39.37cm)
D. 27.0 in (68.58 cm)
Answer: C

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Exam Code: S90-04A
Exam Name: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Project Delivery & Methodology)
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Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Which of the following statements makes sense?
A. The bottom-up approach is tactical (short-term) and therefore advocates that up-front analysis effort be
carried out before the service inventory blueprint is finalized.
B. The top-down approach is tactical (short-term) and therefore advocates that up-front analysis effort be
carried out before the service inventory blueprint is finalized.
C. The bottom-up approach is strategic (long-term) and therefore advocates that up-front analysis effort
be carried out before the service inventory blueprint is finalized.
D. The top-down approach is strategic (long-term) and therefore advocates that up-front analysis effort be
carried out before the service inventory blueprint is finalized.
Answer: D

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NO.2 The Inventory Management System project is delivering a modest solution comprised of three services.
The project team is following a bottom-up approach whereby service developers are building the services
to fulfill tactical (short-term) requirements. Although not everyone agrees with this approach, it does
actually directly support the following service-oriented computing goal:
A. Increased Intrinsic Interoperability
B. Increased Business and Technology Alignment
C. Increased Federation
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is true?
A. The meet-in-the-middle delivery approach allows an on-going top-down analysis to occur while
services are designed and delivered. The only requirement is that delivered services eventually be
updated to be kept in alignment with the results of the top-down analysis.
B. The meet-in-the-middle delivery approach is essentially based on the bottom-up approach in that it
allows services to be delivered without up-front analysis. The only difference is that the
meet-in-the-middle approach advocates the use of object-orientation principles instead of
service-orientation principles.
C. The meet-in-the-middle delivery approach is essentially based on the top-down approach in that it
allows services to be delivered after the completion of the top-down analysis. The only difference is that
the meet-in-the-middle approach advocates the use of people that act as mediators who ensure that
business analysts and technology architects can collaborate harmoniously.
D. None of these statements are true.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is false?
A. With the bottom-up approach, services are built on an "as need" basis and are modeled to encapsulate
application logic to best serve the immediate requirements of the solution.
B. The bottom-up approach is often motivated by integration needs that may require establishing
point-to-point integration channels between legacy systems.
C. The bottom-up approach is focused primarily on maximizing service reuse. Therefore, special attention
is paid to the documentation of service profile information that is used to create complete service catalog
entries.
D. The bottom-up approach can result in the creation of hybrid services that contain a mix of logic from
different sources.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Bottom-up delivery is generally focused on fulfilling ____________ requirements while top-down
delivery is generally focused on fulfilling ____________ requirements.
A. tactical (short-term), tactical (short-term)
B. strategic (long-term), strategic (long-term)
C. tactical (short-term), strategic (long-term)
D. strategic (long-term), tactical (short-term)
Answer: C

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NO.6 Two service delivery projects are being carried out concurrently. Each project has its own project team.
Even though both projects are delivering services for the same service inventory, each project team is
given complete independence as to how services are designed and developed and what design
standards are to be used. Which of the following statements describes a likely consequence of this
approach.?
A. The service inventory will be comprised of services that comply to different design standards and these
services will therefore not be compatible or interoperable.
B. Services with redundant and overlapping logic may be delivered because no effort was made to
coordinate the delivery of the services between the two projects.
C. One project team may decide to follow a top-down delivery approach, whereas the other project team
may follow a bottom-up delivery approach.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.7 In a service-oriented analysis process, business and technology experts are encouraged to
collaborate hands-on so that they can jointly model service candidates.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following statements makes sense?
A. We delivered the project using a meet-in-the-middle approach, which allowed us to start building
services before completing our top-down analysis.
B. We delivered the project using a meet-in-the-middle approach, which allowed us to complete our
service inventory blueprint before delivering our services.
C. We delivered the project using a meet-in-the-middle approach, which allowed us to bypass up-front
analysis altogether so that we could build our services in the shortest possible timeframe.
D. None of these statements make sense.
Answer: A

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NO.9 SOA projects introduce new considerations that tend to augment the traditional project lifecycle as
follows:
A. they tend to introduce the need for more up-front analysis effort
B. they tend to require closer collaboration between business and technology experts
C. they tend to require a careful prioritization of tactical (short-term) and strategic (long-term)
requirements
D. they tend to introduce new project roles
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.10 A service candidate is:
A. a conceptual service
B. a proposed service that may not yet physically exist
C. a modeled service produced via a service modeling process
D. a modeled service that initially acts as the starting point for the physical design of the service
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.11 Which of the following tends to be the most expensive and time consuming project delivery strategy?
A. bottom-up
B. top-down
C. meet-in-the-middle
D. round-about
Answer: C

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NO.12 The primary deliverable of the service inventory analysis is a ____________ of the service inventory.
A. blueprint
B. contract
C. composition architecture
D. legend
Answer: A

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NO.13 The Claims Solution project is responsible for delivering a service composition comprised of seven
services. The project team is following a meet-in-the-middle approach whereby a service analyst and two
service architects will continue carrying out a top-down analysis effort after the initial set of services is
designed and developed. What will happen after the top-down analysis completes and the final service
candidates are noticeably different from the services that have already been delivered?
A. The previously delivered services remain in use until they can no longer fulfill their functional
requirements, at which point they are retired and replaced with new services based on the final service
candidates.
B. The previously delivered services are later redesigned and redeveloped as per the final service
candidates in order to bring the services in the Claims Solution in alignment with the target service
inventory blueprint.
C. The previously delivered services are not changed and the final service candidates serve as a constant
reminder as to how they should have been designed.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Top-down approaches typically ____________ the long-term governance burden of services.
A. increase
B. decrease
C. eliminate
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.15 An SOA project carried out with a top-down approach can contain phases that require the completion
of the following tasks:
A. development of services
B. design of services
C. analysis of services
D. testing of services
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.1 As an HR Professional you must be familiar with several different lawsuits and their affect on human
resource practices today. What legal case found that a test that has an adverse impact on a protected
class is still lawful as long as the test can be shown to be valid and job related?
A. Washington versus Davis, 1976
B. Griggs versus Duke Power, 1971
C. McDonnell Douglas Corp. versus Green, 1973
D. Albemarle Paper versus Moody, 1975
Answer: A

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NO.2 As an HR Professional, you must be familiar with the collective bargaining agreements and the process
that rights are given, contracts, and union and management cooperation. Consider an arbitration process
between the management and the union. What term is assigned to the resolution of the disagreement, by
an arbitrator's interpretation of the language of the contract?
A. Resolution
B. Interpretation
C. Decision
D. Outcome
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the FairPay amount that defines, what a person makes, to be considered highly
compensated?
A. $110,000 or more
B. $150,000 or more
C. $100,000 or more
D. $125,000 or more
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your manager has approached you regarding her desire to outsource certain functions to an external
firm. She would like for you to create a document to send to three vendors asking them for solutions for
these functions that your organization is to outsource. What type of a procurement document would you
create and send to the vendors in this instance?
A. Request for Proposal
B. Request for Quote
C. Invitation for Bid
D. Request for Information
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are an HR Professional for your organization. Your organization employs 120 people in the United
States. You are required to file the EEO-1 report for your organization by what date?
A. April 15 of each year
B. The anniversary date of your organization reaching 100 employees
C. January 1 of each year
D. September 30 of each year
Answer: D

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NO.6 As an HR Professional, you are required to post an OSHA poster in a conspicuous place that is easily
visible to employees. What OSHA poster lists each of the employee's rights?
A. OSHA 3165 poster
B. OSHA 5613 poster
C. OSHA 5131 poster
D. OSHA 3615 poster
Answer: A

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NO.7 During the organization of a union, it's possible that the union will gain recognition from the
management. The management is then obliged to give the NLRB a list of employees who are eligible to
vote in the unionization election. What is the name of the list of such employees called?
A. Constituent List
B. Union prospectus List
C. Excelsior List
D. Candidate List
Answer: C

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NO.8 Holly is a senior worker in her organization and she is a member of the union. Her position will be
eliminated in sixty days and she will be released from the company. Rather than being unemployed, Holly
asks the union to move her to a less senior position and release a junior employee. If the union agrees to
this, what will this term be known as?
A. Bumping
B. Displacement
C. Releasing
D. Re-organization
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are an HR Professional for your organization. You and your supervisor are reviewing the EEO
reporting requirements for your company to comply with the reports your firm should file. Which EEO
Report is a survey, collected every other year on even calendar years?
A. EEO-4 Report
B. EEO-5 Report
C. EEO-3 Report
D. EEO-1 Report
Answer: C

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NO.10 The JHG Company has used discriminatory hiring practices in the past but they adjusted their
practices and are following federal laws now to ensure that fair hiring practices are met. However, the
JHG Company has an employee referral program as a primary source to recruit new employees. What
danger may the JHG Company be exposed to in this scenario?
A. Perpetuating past unintentional practices
B. Perpetuating past discrimination practices
C. Succumbing to an adverse impact
D. Not finding qualified racially diverse candidates
Answer: B

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NO.11 Consider your role as a HR Professional in your organization. In your duties you're to keep abreast of
market trends, practices in HR, employee attitudes, and your business needs. What component of the HR
Impact Model is addressed in this situation?
A. Programs and processes
B. Policies and procedures
C. Catalyst
D. Consultation
Answer: C

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NO.12 You are a HR Professional for your organization and you're preparing your team for a series of
interviews. You want the team to be familiar with the validity types you'll use and encourage in the series
of interviews. One of the requirements in the interview process for a graphic designer is, for the graphic
designer to use a software program and to create a simple brochure. This is an example of what type of
validity?
A. Construct-related validity
B. Predictive validity
C. Criterion-related validity
D. Content validity
Answer: D

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NO.13 There are four components of the HR Impact Model, which affect how a HR Professional may operate
within a given environment. Which one of the following is NOT a component of the HR Impact Model.?
A. Consultation
B. Client
C. Catalyst
D. Programs and processes
Answer: B

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NO.14 Your organization will be using the point factor technique in their evaluations of job performance. You
need to communicate what the point factor technique accomplishes as you're the HR Professional for
your organization. Which one of the following best describes the point factor technique?
A. Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are
documented.
B. Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are
weighted on importance to theemployee.
C. Performance factors are identified by the employee and then performance levels within the factors are
weighted based on importance to the organization.
D. Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are
documented. The different factors and levels are weighted based on importance to the organization.
Answer: D

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NO.15 The Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 prohibits employers from discriminating against employees
on the basis of pregnancy, child birth, or other related medical conditions. This law affects organizations
having what minimum number of employees?
A. All organizations with employees must abide by this law
B. Organizations with 100 or more employees
C. Organizations with 15 or more employees
D. This law only addresses federal government employees
Answer: C

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NO.16 The GHF Corporation is looking to hire four software developers. The average pay for software
developers, with the desired skill set, is $76,000. The GHF Corporation believes that by offering $80,000
for the starting salary they'll attract better performers than their competitors. What is this scenario an
example of?
A. Lagging the market
B. Leading the market
C. Matching the market
D. Beating the market
Answer: B

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NO.17 As a Senior HR Professional, you should be familiar with non-monetary rewards that your company
provides for its employees. Which of the following is an example of non-monetary reward?
A. Satisfaction from challenging and exciting assignments
B. Esteem from working with other talented people
C. Cash compensation
D. On-site cafeteria
Answer: D

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NO.18 Fran is a HR Professional for her organization and she is interviewing applicants for a warehouse
position. One of the candidates has written on his application that he speaks Spanish. Fran interviews this
candidate in Spanish and interviews all other candidates in English. This is an example of what?
A. Disparate treatment
B. Disparate impact
C. Accommodation
D. Perpetuating past discrimination
Answer: A

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NO.19 Kelly's organization has posted a new job opening for their organization. This job opening is for a
woman to be the restroom attended, for all women's restrooms and locker rooms, in their organization.
Kelly believes, however, that the requirement for the applicant to be a female is a violation of the Title VII
of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Which one of the following is the best answer for this scenario?
A. This is an example of an exception by bonafide occupational qualification to the Title VII of the Civil
Rights Act of 1964
B. This is an example of a violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
C. The sex of applicants is excluded from the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
D. This is not a violation of the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 because there is an equal paying
and titled job for the men's restroom and locker rooms in the company
Answer: A

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NO.20 Your organization has a retirement benefits plan that is covered by ERISA . Under ERISA, which of the
following is your organization required to do for the plan participants?
A. Provide each participant with plan information, specifically about the features and funding of the plan
through a summary plan description at a cost of no more than $7 per participant, per year.
B. Provide each participant with plan information, specifically about the features and funding of the plan
through a summary plan description at no cost.
C. Provide each participant with monthly plan information, specifically about the features and funding of
the plan through a summary plan description at no more than $7 perparticipant, per month.
D. Provide each participant with monthly plan information, specifically about the features and funding of
the plan through a summary plan description at no cost.
Answer: B

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NO.1 Peter works as a Technical Representative in a CSIRT for SecureEnet Inc. His team is called to
investigate the computer of an employee, who is suspected for classified data theft. Suspect's computer
runs on Windows operating system. Peter wants to collect data and evidences for further analysis. He
knows that in Windows operating system, the data is searched in pre-defined steps for proper and
efficient analysis. Which of the following is the correct order for searching data on a Windows based
system?
A. Volatile data, file slack, registry, memory dumps, file system, system state backup, interne t traces
B. Volatile data, file slack, file system, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, interne t traces
C. Volatile data, file slack, internet traces, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, file system
D. Volatile data, file slack, registry, system state backup, internet traces, file system, memory dumps
Answer: B

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NO.2 Andrew works as a System Administrator for NetPerfect Inc. All client computers on the network run on
Mac OS X. The Sales Manager of the company complains that his MacBook is not able to boot. Andrew
wants to check the booting process. He suspects that an error persists in the bootloader of Mac OS X.
Which of the following is the default bootloader on Mac OS X that he should use to resolve the issue?
A. LILO
B. BootX
C. NT Loader
D. GRUB
Answer: B

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NO.3 Adam works as a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator. He wants to investigate a
suspicious email that is sent using a Microsoft Exchange server. Which of the following files will he review
to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Checkpoint files
B. EDB and STM database files
C. Temporary files
D. cookie files
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. Your company has a Windows 2000based
network. You want to verify the connectivity of a host in the network. Which of the following utilities will you
use?
A. PING
B. TELNET
C. NETSTAT
D. TRACERT
Answer: A

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NO.5 Adam works as a Security Administrator for Umbrella Inc. A project has been assigned to him to
secure access to the network of the company from all possible entry points. He segmented the network
into several subnets and installed firewalls all over the network. He has placed very stringent rules on all
the firewalls, blocking everything in and out except ports that must be used.
He does need to have port 80 open since his company hosts a website that must be accessed from the
Internet. Adam is still worried about programs like Hping2 that can get into a network through covert
channels.
Which of the following is the most effective way to protect the network of the company from an attacker
using Hping2 to scan his internal network?
A. Block ICMP type 13 messages
B. Block all outgoing traffic on port 21
C. Block all outgoing traffic on port 53
D. Block ICMP type 3 messages
Answer: A

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NO.6 John, a novice web user, makes a new E-mail account and keeps his password as "apple", his favorite
fruit. John's password is vulnerable to which of the following password cracking attacks?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Dictionary attack
B. Hybrid attack
C. Brute Force attack
D. Rule based attack
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 Allen works as a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator. A project has been assigned to
him to investigate a computer, which is used by the suspect to sexually harass the victim using instant
messenger program. Suspect's computer runs on Windows operating system. Allen wants to recover
password from instant messenger program, which suspect is using, to collect the evidence of the crime.
Allen is using Helix Live for this purpose. Which of the following utilities of Helix will he use to accomplish
the task?
A. Asterisk Logger
B. Access PassView
C. Mail Pass View
D. MessenPass
Answer: D

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NO.8 Ryan, a malicious hacker submits Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) exploit code to the Website of Internet
forum for online discussion. When a user visits the infected Web page, code gets automatically executed
and Ryan can easily perform acts like account hijacking, history theft etc.
Which of the following types of Cross-Site Scripting attack Ryan intends to do?
A. Document Object Model (DOM)
B. Non persistent
C. SAX
D. Persistent
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following tools performs comprehensive tests against web servers for multiple items,
including over 6100 potentially dangerous files/CGIs?
A. Dsniff
B. Snort
C. Nikto
D. Sniffer
Answer: C

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NO.10 This is a Windows-based tool that is used for the detection of wireless LANs using the IEEE 802.11a,
802.11b, and 802.11g standards. The main features of these tools are as follows: -It displays the signal
strength of a wireless network, MAC address, SSID, channel details, etc. -It is commonly used for the
following purposes:
A. War driving
B. Detecting unauthorized access points
C. Detecting causes of interference on a WLAN
D. WEP ICV error tracking
E. Making Graphs and Alarms on 802.11 Data, including Signal Strength
Answer: D

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NO.11 Adam works as a Security Analyst for Umbrella Inc. He is performing real-time traffic analysis on IP
networks using Snort. Adam is facing problems in analyzing intrusion data. Which of the following
software combined with Snort can Adam use to get a visual representation of intrusion data?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Basic Analysis and Security Engine (BASE)
B. sguil
C. KFSensor
D. OSSIM
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.12 Which of the following proxy servers is also referred to as transparent proxies or forced proxies?
A. Tunneling proxy server
B. Reverse proxy server
C. Anonymous proxy server
D. Intercepting proxy server
Answer: D

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NO.13 SSH is a network protocol that allows data to be exchanged between two networks using a secure
channel. Which of the following encryption algorithms can be used by the SSH protocol?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Blowfish
B. IDEA
C. DES
D. RC4
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.14 You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. The company's Windows 2000-based network is
configured with Internet Security and Acceleration (ISA) Server 2000. You want to configure intrusion
detection on the server. You find that the different types of attacks on the Intrusion Detection tab page of
the IP Packet Filters Properties dialog box are disabled. What is the most likely cause?
A. The PPTP through ISA firewall check box on the PPTP tab page of the IP Packet Filters
Properties dialog box is not enabled.
B. The Enable IP routing check box on the General tab page of the IP Packet Filters Properties dialog box
is not selected.
C. The Log packets from Allow filters check box on the Packet Filters tab page of the IP Packet Filters
Properties dialog box is not enabled.
D. The Enable Intrusion detection check box on the General tab page of the IP Packet Filters Properties
dialog box is not selected.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following is the default port for Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)?
A. TCP port 110
B. TCP port 25
C. TCP port 80
D. UDP port 161
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following statements about a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS) are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It can detect events scattered over the network.
B. It can handle encrypted and unencrypted traffic equally.
C. It cannot detect events scattered over the network.
D. It is a technique that allows multiple computers to share one or more IP addresses.
Answer: B,C

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NO.17 You are the Network Administrator for a large corporate network. You want to monitor all network traffic
on your local network for suspicious activities and receive a notification when a possible attack is in
process. Which of the following actions will you take for this?
A. Enable verbose logging on the firewall
B. Install a network-based IDS
C. Install a DMZ firewall
D. Install a host-based IDS
Answer: B

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NO.18 Mark works as a Network Security Administrator for BlueWells Inc. The company has a
Windowsbased network. Mark is giving a presentation on Network security threats to the newly recruited
employees of the company. His presentation is about the External threats that the company recently faced
in the past. Which of the following statements are true about external threats?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. These are the threats that originate from outside an organization in which the attacker attempts to gain
unauthorized access.
B. These are the threats that originate from within the organization.
C. These are the threats intended to flood a network with large volumes of access requests.
D. These threats can be countered by implementing security controls on the perimeters of the network,
such as firewalls, which limit user access to the Internet.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.19 Which of the following methods is a behavior-based IDS detection method?
A. Knowledge-based detection
B. Protocol detection
C. Statistical anomaly detection
D. Pattern matching detection
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following statements are true about snort?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It develops a new signature to find vulnerabilities.
B. It detects and alerts a computer user when it finds threats such as buffer overflows, stealth port scans,
CGI attacks, SMB probes and NetBIOS queries, NMAP and other port scanners, well-known backdoors
and system vulnerabilities, and DDoS clients.
C. It encrypts the log file using the 256 bit AES encryption scheme algorithm.
D. It is used as a passive trap to record the presence of traffic that should not be found on a network, such
as NFS or Napster connections.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.21 Adam works as a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator. A project has been assigned
to him to investigate a multimedia enabled mobile phone, which is suspected to be used in a cyber crime.
Adam uses a tool, with the help of which he can recover deleted text messages, photos, and call logs of
the mobile phone. Which of the following tools is Adam using?
A. FAU
B. FTK Imager
C. Galleta
D. Device Seizure
Answer: D

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NO.22 Which of the following is known as a message digest?
A. Hash function
B. Hashing algorithm
C. Spider
D. Message authentication code
Answer: A

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NO.23 Adam works as a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator in a law firm. He has been assigned with
his first project. Adam collected all required evidences and clues. He is now required to write an
investigative report to present before court for further prosecution of the case. He needs guidelines to
write an investigative report for expressing an opinion. Which of the following are the guidelines to write
an investigative report in an efficient way?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. All ideas present in the investigative report should flow logically from facts to conclusions.
B. Opinion of a lay witness should be included in the investigative report.
C. The investigative report should be understandable by any reader.
D. There should not be any assumptions made about any facts while writing the investigative report.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.24 Which of the following can be applied as countermeasures against DDoS attacks?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Limiting the amount of network bandwidth.
B. Blocking IP address.
C. Using LM hashes for passwords.
D. Using Intrusion detection systems.
E. Using the network-ingress filtering.
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.25 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The office network is configured as an IPv6
network. You have to configure a computer with the IPv6 address, which is equivalent to an IPv4 publicly
routable address. Which of the following types of addresses will you choose?
A. Site-local
B. Global unicast
C. Local-link
D. Loopback
Answer: B

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NO.26 Sasha wants to add an entry to your DNS database for your mail server. Which of the following types of
resource records will she use to accomplish this.?
A. ANAME
B. SOA
C. MX
D. CNAME
Answer: C

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NO.27 Victor works as a network administrator for DataSecu Inc. He uses a dual firewall Demilitarized
Zone (DMZ) to insulate the rest of the network from the portions that is available to the Internet.
Which of the following security threats may occur if DMZ protocol attacks are performed?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Attacker can perform Zero Day attack by delivering a malicious payload that is not a part of the
intrusion detection/prevention systems guarding the network.
B. Attacker can gain access to the Web server in a DMZ and exploit the database.
C. Attacker managing to break the first firewall defense can access the internal network without breaking
the second firewall if it is different.
D. Attacker can exploit any protocol used to go into the internal network or intranet of the com pany
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.28 Which of the following tools are used to determine the hop counts of an IP packet?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. TRACERT
B. Ping
C. IPCONFIG
D. Netstat
Answer: A,B

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NO.29 Which of the following file systems is designed by Sun Microsystems?
A. NTFS
B. CIFS
C. ZFS
D. ext2
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which of the following Web attacks is performed by manipulating codes of programming languages
such as SQL, Perl, Java present in the Web pages?
A. Command injection attack
B. Code injection attack
C. Cross-Site Request Forgery
D. Cross-Site Scripting attack
Answer: B

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Exam Code: GSSP-NET
Exam Name: GIAC (GIAC GIAC Secure Software Programmer - C#.NET )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 491 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET Framework
3.5. The application contains two HTML pages named Error.htm and
PageNotFound.htm. You want to make sure that the following requirements are met:
l When any user requests a page that does not exist, the PageNotFound.htm page is
displayed.
l When any other error occurs, the Error.htm page is displayed. Which of the following code segments will
you add to the Web.config file to accomplish this task?
A. <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="Error.htm">
<error statusCode="404" redirect="PageNotFound.htm"/>
</customErrors>
B. <customErrors mode="Off">
<error statusCode="400" redirect="Error.htm"/>
<error statusCode="404" redirect="PageNotFound.htm"/>
</customErrors>
C. <customErrors mode="On">
<error statusCode="400" redirect="Error.htm"/>
<error statusCode="404" redirect="PageNotFound.htm"/> </customErrors>
D. <customErrors mode="Off" defaultRedirect="Error.htm"> <error statusCode="404"
redirect="PageNotFound.htm"/> </customErrors>
Answer: A

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NO.2 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET
Framework 3.5. You want to use a HTTP module called on each and every request made by the
application. It is called as part of the ASP.NET request pipeline. It has right to access life-cycle events
throughout the request. You also want to ensure that the HTTP module allows a user to inspect incoming
and outgoing requests and take appropriate action based on the request. What will be the correct order to
create the HTTP module?
A.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following techniques is used to transmit passwords during authentication?
A. Asymmetric encryption
B. Hashing
C. Salted Hash
D. Symmetric encryption
Answer: C

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NO.4 You work as an Application Developer for ABC Inc. You are assigned with developing a Web site that
will handle information related to monthly sales of the company. You wish to secure the Web site so that
only employees of the Accounts department can view the Web pages. You need to create roles for the
employees of this department. The user account information will be stored in a SQL Server database
named Database. You decide to do all this by using the Web Site Administration Tool. Which of the
following types of security will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Forms-based authentication
B. Integrated Microsoft Windows authentication
C. Basic authentication
D. Digest authentication
Answer: A

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NO.5 In .NET Framework 3.5, you can create and access values that persist from one application session to
another. What are these values called?
A. Objects
B. Settings
C. Properties
D. Attributes
Answer: B

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NO.6 Session variables can be any valid __________.
A. .NET Framework type
B. Integer type
C. SessionStateItemCollection object
D. Object type
Answer: A

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NO.7 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application
development platform. You create a class library using the .NET Framework. The library will be used to
open the NSCs of computers. Later, you will set up the class library to the GAC and provide it Full Trust
permission. You write down the following code segments for the socket connections:
SocketPermission permission = new SocketPermission(PermissionState.Unrestricted);
permission.Assert();
A number of the applications that use the class library may not have the necessary permissions to open
the network socket connections. Therefore, you are required to withdraw the assertion. Which of the
following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. permission.PermitOnly();
B. CodeAccessPermission.RevertDeny();
C. permission.Deny();
D. CodeAccessPermission.RevertAssert();
E. permission.Demand();
Answer: D

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NO.8 Andrew works as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. The company's network has a Web server
that hosts the company's Web site. Andrew wants to enhance the security of the Web site by
implementing Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). Which of the following types of encryption does SSL use?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Symmetric
B. Secret
C. IPSec
D. Asymmetric
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its
application development platform. You have recently finished development of a Windows application
using .NET Framework. Users report that the application is not running properly. When the users try to
complete a particular action, the following error message comes out:
Unable to find assembly 'myservices, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral,
PublicKeyToken=29b5ad26c9de9b95'.
You notice that the error occurs as soon as the application tries to call functionality in a serviced
component that was registered by using the following command:
regsvcs.exe myservices.dll
You must make sure that the application can call the functionality in the serviced component with no
exceptions being thrown. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Run the command line tool: regasm.exe myservices.dll.
B. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\Program Files\ComPlus Applications fold er.
C. Run the command line tool: gacutil.exe /i myservices.dll.
D. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\WINDOWS\system32\Com folder.
Answer: C

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NO.10 You work as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. You create an application and use it to create code
access security policies. Which of the following tools will you use to examine and modify code access
security policies from a batch file?
A. Tlbimp.exe
B. GacUtil.exe
C. Sn.exe
D. Caspol.exe
E. StoreAdm.exe
Answer: D

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NO.11 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You are creating an ASP.NET Web application using .NET Framework
3.5. The application will be used to share any type of photos on Internet. All the photos should be
accessible in various sizes and formats. You need to add a download feature that can be easily
maintained. You also need to make sure that only a single version of all photos is stored on a SQL server
database. What will you do?
A. Create an HttpModule class to determine the request for the photo download. Process the photo
according to the given format and size, and after that return the processed photo in the response.
B. Create a user control that converts the photo to the required format and size.
C. Create an HttpHandler class to determine the request for the photo download. Process the photo
according to the given format and size, and after that return the processed photo in the response.
D. Create an ActiveX control that converts the photo to the required format and size.
Answer: C

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NO.12 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You have recently finished development of an ASP.NET Web
application using the .NET Framework 3.5. You host the application on a Web farm that consists of three
Web servers. You should configure the ASP.NET application for session state to meet the following
requirements:
l Session state data should not be lost if a server fails.
l Session state must be maintained across browser requests by the same user.
You are required to configure the Web.config file to meet these requirements. Which of the following
configurations will you use?
A. <sessionState mode="StateServer"/>
B. <sessionState mode="InProc"/>
C. <sessionState mode="Custom"/>
D. <sessionState mode="SQLServer"/>
Answer: D

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NO.13 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The
company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its application development platform. You have recently
finished the development of an application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application can be used only
for cryptography. Therefore, you have implemented the application on a computer. What will you call the
computer that implemented cryptography?
A. Cryptographic toolkit
B. Cryptosystem
C. Cryptographer
D. Cryptanalyst
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following session and instancing modes will you set if you require a sessionfull binding
and want to create a new instance object for each client request?
A. Set SessionMode to Allowed and IntsanceMode to PerSession.
B. Set SessionMode to Required and IntsanceMode to Single.
C. Set SessionMode to Required and IntsanceMode to PerCall.
D. Set SessionMode to Allowed and IntsanceMode to PerCall.
Answer: C

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NO.15 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using .NET Framework 3.5.
You create a Web form in the application that permits users to provide personal information. You add a
DropDownList control to the Web form to retrieve the residential status of users. The default item that the
DropDownList control displays is the "Select Country" option. You have to ensure that users select a
country other than the default option. Which of the following validation controls should you use to
accomplish this task?
A. RangeValidator
B. RequiredFieldValidator
C. CustomValidator
D. RegularExpressionValidator
Answer: B

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NO.16 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its
application development platform. You create an application for the company. You need to validate the
phone number passed to a class as a parameter in the application. Which of the following is the most
effective way to verify that the format of the data matches a phone number.?
A. Regular expressions
B. Nested If statements
C. Use the String.Length property
D. A try/catch block
Answer: A

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NO.17 Allen works as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET as its
application development platform. He creates an application using .NET Framework. He wants to encrypt
all his e-mails that he sends to anyone. Which of the following will he use to accomplish the task?
A. PPP
B. FTP
C. PPTP
D. PGP
Answer: D

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NO.18 You work as a Software Developer for ManSoft Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2005 as its
application development platform. You have recently created an application that includes the code shown
below.
string str1 = "ABC";
string str2 = "u";
str2 += "Certify";
Console.WriteLine(str1 == str2);
Console.WriteLine((Object) str1 == (Object) str2);
Console.WriteLine(str1.Equals(str2));
What will be the output of the above code?
A. False False False
B. False True False
C. True True True
D. True False True
Answer: D

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NO.19 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The
company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are creating an
application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application will be used by all the branches of the company.
You are using the CompareInfo class for culture-sensitive string comparisons. You write the following
code in the application:
String s1 = "C rtify";
String s2 = "c rtify";
String s3 = "c rtify";
You need to compare the s1 string with the s2 string and ensure that the string comparison must ignore
case. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.IgnoreCase));
B. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.None));
C. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.Ordinal));
D. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.OrdinalIgnoreCase));
Answer: A

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NO.20 You can use LINQ in an ASP.NET application through the LinqDataSource control, the __________
control, or by creating LINQ queries.
A. ADO.NET DataSet
B. ObjectDataSource
C. SqlDataSource
D. XmlDataSource
Answer: B

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