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Exam Code: 642-270
Exam Name: Cisco (Implementing Cisco TelePresence Video Networking Solutions Exam)

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NO.1 On a Cisco TelePresence CLI, which command is the correct syntax to run a traceroute to a remote
host.?
A. network traceroute {dest}
B. tracert {dest}
C. utils network tracert {dest}
D. set tracert {dest}
Answer: C

Cisco   642-270 answers real questions   642-270

NO.2 Given the following:
Cisco TelePresence endpoint A: In the Cisco Unified Communication Manager, Quality is set to High
detail, Good Motion 720p
Cisco TelePresence endpoint B: In the Unified CM, Quality is set to High detail, Best Motion 1080p
What happens when Cisco TelPresence endpoint A calls Cisco TelePresence endpoint B?
A. Cisco TelePresence endpoint A gets a fast busy.
B. The call connects, but it drops witha ° C on fi gu r a ti on m i s m a t c ¡± e r ro r o n C i sc o T el e Pr esenc e endp oin t B
C. Cisco TelePresence endpoint B quality upgrades to 1080p and the call goes through at 1080p.
D. Cisco TelePresence endpoint B quality drops down to 720p and the call goes through at 720p.
Answer: D

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NO.3 On a Cisco TelePresence CLI, which command is the correct syntax to get Layer 2 address of all
connected devices?
A. show arp list
B. utils arp list
C. arp list active
D. arp list list
E. show arp active
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which QoS mapping is the best practice for Cisco TelePresence systems?
A. CoS 5 to map to a DSCP value of 40
B. CoS 4 to map to a DSCP value of 46
C. CoS 3 to map to a DSCP value of 48
D. CoS 5 to map to a DSCP value of 16
E. CoS 4 to map to a DSCP value of 32
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which statement describe the Hard-lock VIP mode of a Cisco TelePresence Multipoint
conference?
A. No Cisco TelePresence endpoint is allowed to join without the VIP approval.
B. No Cisco TelePresence endpoint is allowed to joinuntil the designated VIP Cisco TelePresence
endpoint joins.
C. VIP video is switched out temporarily with voice-activatedswitching; VIP video is switched back
automatically.
D. VIP video is always displayed at all sites and is never switched out.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 650-367
Exam Name: Cisco (PSACAS Advanced Collaboration Architecture Sales Specialist Exam)

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NO.1 Your customer wants to offer Cisco Smart Care. Why is it important to have sophisticated management
tools, such as Cisco Monitor Manager or Cisco Monitor Director, to offer this service?
A. These management tools are suited to manage various service contracts from different customers.
B. With sophisticated management tools, you can open cases at Cisco TAC.
C. These management tools enable views into potential problems before they impact a customer ¯ s
business.
D. Cisco Smart Care is a responsive service.
Answer: C

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NO.2 In which two ways will a Cisco customer benefit from the Cisco Technology Developer Program?
(Choose Two)
A. The customer will get immediate support from Cisco TAC.
B. A company can display the Cisco Compatible logo in association with its product offering.
C. The program provides three year of affordable technical support and software enhancements.
D. The program exponentially expands the number and quality of rich, new business solutions.
E. Companies offering these new business solutions participate in one of five successive levels.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which of the following gateways would be most suitable for a customer who is supporting only same
analog phones and fax machines?
A. Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switch
B. Cisco AS5800 Universal Gateway
C. Cisco Unified Border Element
D. Cisco VG200 Series Gateways
Answer: D

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NO.4 Why is the financial manager an integral part of the decision-making process?
A. Cisco TelePresence is personal, multipurpose, and immersive.
B. Cisco TelePresence is a pure, high-end videoconferencing solution.
C. Cisco TelePresence is low-cost video for everyone everywhere.
D. Cisco TelePresence is personal, single-purpose, and immersive.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two of the following solutions are new with the Cisco Unified Communication 8.5 release.?
(Choose two.) Select exactly 2 answer(s) from the following:
A. Cisco Enterprise Social Software
B. Cisco Unified Integration for Microsoft Office Communicator
C. Cisco SocialMiner
D. Cisco Media Capture Platform
E. Cisco Visual Voicemail
Answer: A,E

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Exam Code: 650-378
Exam Name: Cisco (ABNFEE Advanced Borderless Network Field Engineer Exam)

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NO.1 Which two of the following does midianet capacity planning involve? (Choose two)
A. the size of the video that is running
B. determining if the video that is running is standart definition or high definition
C. how much video has been run over the network in the past 30 days
D. determining how much video is currently running over the network
E. the buffer requirements for each type of video
Answer: DE

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NO.2 Which three deployment options does Cisco offer for email security? (choose three.)
A. Cisco ASA
B. Stuxnet
C. Cisco AnyConnect
D. a hybrid-hosted service offering
E. a dedicated hosted email security service
F. cloud security
G. an on-premises appliance
Answer: DEG

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NO.3 You want a security solution that enforces access and policies in borderless network by providing
information such as identity, time and date, posture, location, device type and access type. Which Cisco
solution will provide you with this information ?
A. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances
B. Cisco AnyConnect
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. Cisco IronPort Web Security Appliances
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two basic blocks or modules make up the campus architecture.? (Choose two.)
A. core
B. access-distribution block
C. services block
D. network infrastructure
E. NetFlow
F. distribution
Answer: BC

Cisco   650-378   650-378   650-378

NO.5 Which core component of the Cisco Borderless Network Architechture stops attacks before they
penetrate the network perimeter by protecting resourses and data, in addition to voice, video, and
multimedia traffic ?
A. meidanet
B. Cisco TrustSec
C. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance 5500 Series
D. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is the Cisco option that is on premises, dedicated appliance offering
high-performance web-based threat mitigation and security policy enforcment?
A. Stuxnet
B. Cisco IronPort S-series Web Security Appliance
C. Cisco AnyConnect
D. Cisco ASA
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which three of the following are interconnected elements of Cisco Unified Wireless network that work
together to deliver unified, enterprise-class wireless solution? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Motion
B. Cisco ClientLink
C. Cisco AnyConnect
D. mobility services
E. access points
F. identity-based networking
G. world-class network management
Answer: DEG

Cisco   650-378   650-378   650-378   650-378

NO.8 Which option is the end-to-end architecture for a network that is composed of advanced, intelligent
technologies and devices in a platform that is optimized for the dilivery of a rich-media experiences?
A. Cisco Motion
B. Cisco Medianet
C. Cisco VideoStream
D. Cisco AnyConnect
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following wirelessly connects devices to the network recourses and simultaneously
monitors the airspace to send radio information back to WLCs?
A. Cisco Aironet Access Points
B. Wi-Fi devices
C. Cisco Compartible Extension tags
D. Cisco Wireless Location Appliance
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the main goal of Cisco Borderless Network?
A. to connect anyone, anywhere, on any device
B. to promote energy efficiency in data centers
C. to allow people to keep in touch with family members aroud the world
D. to allow people to communicate on any device within the parametrs of their network
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 650-128
Exam Name: Cisco (Authorized Connected Grid Account Manager Knowledge Verification )

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NO.1 Which statement reflects the overall Cisco Smart Grid vision?
A. Sell the existing Cisco IP-based products from end-to-end of our utility customer's smart grid
deployments.
B. Design and architect an end-to-end communications infrastructure that is integrated with the power
grid.
C. Integrate intelligent routing protocols into existing electrical grids.
D. Create a single infrastructure for unified communications from electrical generation plants to all primary
and secondary substations.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of these trends is the main driver toward smart grid technology?
A. increased supply, which requires the integration of distributed generation sources
B. reduced demand, which causes an increase in demand and peak load
C. compliance with regulations involving government funding and rules
D. increased carbon footprint
Answer: C

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NO.3 How many levels or types of priority can be assigned on a Cisco TAC case.?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 3
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 650-157
Exam Name: Cisco (ISIES Cisco IronPort Security Instructor – Security)

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NO.1 In the default settings, which of the following sender groups will match on a reputation score of+2?
A. BLACKLIST
B. WHITEUST
C. SUSPECTLIST
D. RELAYL1ST
E. UNKNOWNUST
Answer: E

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NO.2 An un-configured C-Series has a duplicate IP address assigned to its management interface.
Which of the following instructor desktop applications will you use to fix the problem?
A. Vsphere Client
B. Putty Client
C. Web browser
D. Terminal Services Manager
Answer: A

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NO.3 An enterprise has two email domains but only one is covered by their LDAP directory. Of the
following, which is the best method to address this?
A. Disable LDAP verification in the HAT
B. Remove LDAP Acceptance from the incoming listener
C. Create a mail policy for this domain that skips LDAP Accept checks.
D. Configure Bypass LDAP Accept in the RAT
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which one of the following menus is used to set the Max. Invalid Recipients Per Hour?
A. HAT Sender Groups
B. LDAP Accept Profile
C. Mail Flow Policies
D. Sender Groups in the HAT
Answer: C

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NO.5 How would you configure the Recipient Access Table to accept all subdomains and the root
domain mydomain.com?
A. One entry: mydomain.com
B. Two entries: mydomain.com and '.mydomain.com
C. Two entries: mydomain.com and .mydomain.com
D. One entry: "mydomain.com
Answer: C

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NO.6 Select two filters that come directly before and after the content filter in the email pipeline.
A. Message Filter
B. Reputation Filter
C. Anti-Spam
D. Outbreak Filters
E. Anti-Virus
F. RSA DLP
Answer: D,E

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NO.7 What is the difference between the ACCEPT and RELAY action in the Mail Flow Policy?
A. ACCEPT will allow the email in and handle it as an outbound message, RELAY will accept the
email and handle it as an inbound message.
B. ACCEPT will allow the email in and handle it as an inbound message, RELAY will accept the
email but skip the RAT and handle it as an outbound message.
C. ACCEPT will allow the email in and handle it as an inbound message, RELAY won't accept the
email unless configured in the RAT.
D. ACCEPT will allow the email in and handle it as outbound and skip the RAT, RELAY will accept
the email and handle it as inbound.
Answer: B

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NO.8 IPAS is enabled for all inbound mail but you want to bypass Spam checking for messages from
cisco.com. Which three methods will do this? (Choose three.)
A. Create an incoming mail policy to match on @cisco.com and disable IPAS.
B. Create a message filter to bypass Spam checkingforCisco.com.
C. Create a content filter to bypass Spam checking for Cisco.com.
D. Create a Mail Flow Policy for Sender Cisco.com and disable IPAS.
E. Add the IP addresses of the sending the sending mail serversofcisco.com to the White list.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.9 Which one of the following commands is the "Administrator Role" restricted from exercising?
A. upgrade
B. shutdown
C. suspend
D. reload
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the: following devices cannot support NIC Pairing?
A. X1060
B. C360 and C160
C. C660
D. C160
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 650-473
Exam Name: Cisco ( Implementing Cisco Identity Services Engine Secure Solutions Exam (ISE))

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NO.1 Which statement is not true about client provisioning (CP)?
A. Cisco ISE manages client provisioning resources for your clients.
B. Client provisioning resources are only provisioned from the ISE Administration node.
C. The remediation timer is a means for clients to remediate themselves.
D. Client provisioning can only provision the NAC Agent
Answer: D

Cisco pdf   650-473 test questions   650-473   650-473

NO.2 Which of these is not an Inline Posture node operating mode?
A. router mode
B. transparent mode
C. bridged mode
D. maintenance mode
Answer: B

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NO.3 The profiling data from network access devices is sent to which Cisco ISE node?
A. Monitoring node
B. Administration node
C. Inline Posture node
D. Policy Service node
Answer: D

Cisco test answers   650-473   650-473

NO.4 Which one of the following statements is not a correct statement about posture?
A. CoA is required for WebAuth.
B. Cisco ISE Administrator can create multiple agent profiles.
C. Both simple and compound conditions can be used to construct posture requirements.
D. Wireless posture supports multiple authentication methods.
Answer: C

Cisco   650-473   650-473 questions

NO.5 What are the three default behaviors of Cisco ISE with respect to authentication, when a user connects
to a switch that is configured for 802.1X, MAB, and WebAuth? (Choose three)
A. MAB traffic uses internal endpoints for retrieving identity.
B. Dot1X traffic uses a user-defined identity store for retrieving identity.
C. Unmatched traffic is allowed on the network.
D. Unmatched traffic is dropped because of the Reject/Reject/Drop action that is configured under
Options.
E. Dot1 traffic uses internal users for retrieving identity.
Answer: A,D,E

Cisco   650-473   650-473 original questions

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Exam Code: 642-993
Exam Name: Cisco (Data Center Unified Computing Systems Design (DCUCD))

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NO.1 What is the primary purpose of NPIV?
A. It is a switch-based solution with a reduction in overhead.
B. Virtual server interfaces can be created within an Cisco MDS switch.
C. Virtual machines can bypass the hypervisor and access a LUN directly.
D. Multiple virtual applications can share a single switch port while maintaining their identity.
Answer: D

Cisco   642-993   642-993 braindump

NO.2 Which is a characteristic of the end-host-mode?
A. It offers no redundancy.
B. It participates in STP.
C. It participates in network control data plan.
D. UCS appears to the external LAN as an end station with many adapters.
Answer: D

Cisco test questions   642-993 certification   642-993   642-993   642-993

NO.3 Which two physical security concerns would most likely be considered first when planning a data center
installation? (Choose two.)
A. ventilation
B. alarm systems
C. raised flooring
D. fire suppression systems
Answer: B,D

Cisco   642-993   642-993   642-993 questions   642-993 certification training

NO.4 Which three business pressures are most typically faced by data centers? (Choose three.)
A. language barriers
B. government regulation and compliance
C. SLA metrics
D. global availability
E. technology silos
Answer: B,C,D

Cisco questions   642-993   642-993 dumps   642-993 braindump

NO.5 Which of the following would be considered a Cisco Unified Computing technical design criteria?
A. Increase the number of servers in the data center.
B. Decrease security requirements.
C. Simplify the Data Center architecture.
D. Reduce power costs while maintaining or increasing compute capacity.
Answer: C

Cisco   642-993 test   642-993   642-993

NO.6 What is the purpose of the L1 and L2 ports on the Cisco UCS 6100 and 6200 Series Fabric Interconnect
switches when running in a cluster with another fabric interconnect?
A. support LACP
B. provide high-availability services
C. used for out-of-band management
D. centralized management port
Answer: B

Cisco test   642-993   642-993   642-993 test

NO.7 Which statement is true regarding UCS ports dedicated as external LAN device uplinks?
A. Ports carry VLAN traffic only
B. Ports are configured as ISL trunks
C. Spanning tree must be enabled on these ports
D. Ports are configured as access ports
Answer: A

Cisco certification training   642-993   642-993

NO.8 What is the purpose of a VSAN in a Cisco Data Center network?
A. to share the zoning across other configured VSANs
B. to provide distributed service within the SAN fabric
C. to advertise the existence of LUNs across the storage area management fabric
D. to facilitate logical end-to-end separation within a single physical storage infrastructure
Answer: D

Cisco original questions   642-993   642-993

NO.9 Which three components are included in Cisco Business Advantage Data Center Architecture?
(Choose three.)
A. unified I/O
B. virtualization
C. Security Manager
D. consolidation
E. Desktop Consolidator
Answer: A,B,D

Cisco   642-993   642-993 exam dumps   642-993 questions

NO.10 Which condition is prevented by the use of the "Combined" power redundancy mode in the Nexus
7000?
A. one PSU failure
B. lack of redundancy
C. one input circuit failure
D. one PSU or one input circuit failure
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 650-196
Exam Name: Cisco (SMB Specialization for Engineers)

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NO.1 Address translation is another component of Layer 3 design. Which two type of address translation
allow an IP Address to be duplicated.? (Choose two.)
A. PAT
B. DAT
C. NAT
D. FAT
E. CAT
Answer: A,C

Cisco   650-196 exam simulations   650-196   650-196 test answers   650-196

NO.2 Which Cisco product would a partner select to maintain a customer network and generate recurring
revenue?
A. OnPlus
B. Quad
C. TelePresence
D. WebEx
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the difference between Cisco Catalyst 2960 LAN Base Series and Cisco Catalyst 2960 LAN Lite
Series?
A. Only the Cisco Catalyst 2960 LAN Lite Series supports Power over Ethernet.
B. Only the Cisco Catalyst 2960 LAN Lite Series supports Gigabit Ethernet uplinks.
C. Only the Cisco Catalyst 2960 LAN Base Series can be managed by Cisco Network Assistant.
D. Only the Cisco Catalyst 2960 LAN Base Series offers enhanced Layer 2+ intelligent LAN services.
Answer: D

Cisco demo   650-196 demo   650-196 certification training   650-196 original questions   650-196

NO.4 Which Cisco RV Series Router can support up to 7 WAN connections or 13 LAN connections?
A. RV016
B. RV042
C. RV082
D. RV220W
Answer: A

Cisco study guide   650-196   650-196   650-196

NO.5 What selling feature is available across all Cisco SPA IP Phones?
A. High-definition voice
B. Dynamic softkeys
C. Interactive video
D. Wi-Fi and Bluetooth
Answer: A

Cisco   650-196   650-196   650-196 exam dumps   650-196 exam

NO.6 Bridges and switches are Layer 2 devices that provide the same basic functionality but that also have
some differences. Which two traits apply to switches only? (Choose two.)
A. Typically have fewer ports because forwarding decisions are made in software
B. Are faster because forwarding decisions are made on hardware
C. Supports Layer 2 VLANs
D. Flood frames out all ports
E. Segment LANs
Answer: B,C

Cisco certification   650-196 questions   650-196 braindump   650-196

NO.7 Which small business desktop application is left with the customer to modify voice and user settings on
the Cisco Unified Communications 500 Series?
A. Cisco Configuration Assistant
B. Cisco Office Manager
C. Cisco FindIT
D. Cisco WebEx Phone Connect
Answer: B

Cisco questions   650-196 original questions   650-196

NO.8 Which program houses all the small business partner training resources?
A. SB University
B. Campaign Builder
C. Select Certification
D. Market Cisco Technologies and Services
Answer: A

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NO.9 What are two advantages that the Cisco SA 520 all-in-one UTM security device has over implementing
a typical router in a small business network? (Choose two.)
A. Access control lists
B. Higher bandwidth
C. Virtual private networks
D. URL filtering
E. Cisco Intrusion Prevention System
Answer: D,E

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NO.10 Which two options are customer value propositions of the Cisco Business Edition 3000? (Choose two.)
A. Advanced Cisco Unified Communications functionality and scalability up to 1000 users
B. Deployment as a hosted service
C. Enables a smooth migration from outdated TDM systems to IP
D. Requires dedicated IT resources to support
E. Value-priced Cisco Unified Communications solution for medium-sized businesses
Answer: C,E

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Exam Code: 640-893
Exam Name: Cisco (Supporting Cisco Data Center System Devices (DCTECH) v1.0)

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NO.1 Which action should the administrator take before physically removing a blade server for maintenance
or replacement?
A. Force the server to shut down
B. Disassociate the service profile
C. Decommission the server
D. Perform a graceful shutdown of the server
Answer: B

Cisco original questions   640-893   640-893   640-893 exam   640-893

NO.2 Which cable is used to access the command-line interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric
Interconnects?
A. KVM cable
B. console cable
C. Ethernet cable
D. SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable
Answer: B

Cisco   640-893 test   640-893 exam dumps   640-893

NO.3 Refer to the exhibit
Which tab displays the hard disk drives that are installed1?
A. A-CPUs
B. B - Memory
C. Power Supplies
D. D - Storage
E. E -Adapters
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which command-line interface mode is best described by this prompt?
UCS-switch-A (nxos)#
A. maintenance mode
B. EXEC mode
C. local management mode
D. global configuration mode
E. Cisco IOS mode
Answer: A

Cisco questions   640-893   640-893 braindump

NO.5 A. Block A, power supply. Block B is a supervisor module
B. Block A is switching module, Block B is a fan try
Answer: A

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NO.6 When the Cisco UCS Manager is used to verify the B- or C-Series device types of Overall Status are
acceptable and do not indicate failure? (Choose two.)
A. Online
B. OK
C. Unassociated
D. Active
Answer: B,C

Cisco   640-893 exam dumps   640-893 test questions

NO.7 Which cable is used to access the command-line -interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric
Interconnects?
A. KVM cable
B. console cable
C. Ethernet cable
D. SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable
Answer: B

Cisco   640-893 questions   640-893   640-893

NO.8 Which two commands or key sequences display a list of the available commands in the Cisco NXOS
prompt UCS-switch (nxos) #.? (Choose two)
A. Tab (key)
B. help
C. ?
D. ~ (tilde key)
E. w
Answer: B,C

Cisco questions   640-893 study guide   640-893 study guide

NO.9 From the Cisco NX-OS prompt"UCS-switch (nxos) #, which command displays the Cisco NX-OS
configuration that is currently in use?
A. show configuration
B. show startup-config
C. show boot-config
D. show mem-config
E. show running-config
Answer: E

Cisco study guide   640-893   640-893   640-893

NO.10 Refer to the exhibit
The pictures on the fight ate the internal components of the Cisco UCS 6250 Blade Server Which
component image should be applied to which empty component block?
A. CPU for block A, adapter card for block B, hard drive for block C. memory for block D
B. CPU for block C. adapter card for block D, hard drive for block A. memory for block B
C. CPU for block B, adapter card for block C, hard drive for block D, memory for block B
D. CPU for block D. adapter card for block A. hard drive for block B. memory for block C
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 650-669
Exam Name: Cisco (Cisco SP Video Digital Media Design Specialist for SE)

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NO.1 Which two SDI input hardware configurations are available on one Cisco DCM IP gateway card?
(Choose two.)
A. 3 input and 3 output
B. 6 input
C. 6 input and 6 output
D. 12 input
E. 12 output
Answer: A,C

Cisco   650-669 study guide   650-669   650-669   650-669

NO.2 Which two video formats are supported by the Cisco OCMG? (Choose two.}
A. ATSC
B. 3G
C. HD
D. DVB-C
Answer: C,D

Cisco   650-669 certification training   650-669   650-669 study guide

NO.3 When configuring backup on the Cisco ROSA EM.
What information must be entered for each device that is connected to a video router.?
A. the physical port connections of the backup equipment to the router
B. the physical port connections of the primary equipment to the router
C. the physical port connections of the backup and primary equipment to the router relations
D. relations between the router and the primary and backup equipment in the DHB
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 642-742
Exam Name: Cisco (Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Voice Networks (IUWVN) v2.0)

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NO.1 Which two options allow a Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phone 7925G to conserve its battery.? (Choose
two.)
A. PS-Poll
B. S-APSD
C. U-APSD
D. 802.11h
E. 802.11r
Answer: A,C

Cisco   642-742   642-742 braindump   642-742

NO.2 Which statement describes the benefit of WMM U-APSD over legacy 802.11 power-save mode?
A. Client can burst data without standard interframe spacing.
B. Client can burst data without ACKs.
C. Client no longer sends null frame to notify of sleep mode.
D. Client sleep mode is scheduled by AP to reduce jitter.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two items enable WMM to expedite frames from respective traffic categories? (Choose two.)
Consistent CWmin and CWmax values
Dynamic CWmin and CWmax values
A. AIFS
B. SIFS
C. PIFS
D. DIFS
E. U-APSD
F. PS-Poll
Answer: B,C

Cisco   642-742 pdf   642-742   642-742 answers real questions

NO.4 When a VoWLAN client is in the range of two cells, which two statements describe how the client makes
a decision about which cell is the best to associate with? (Choose two.)
A. The client will associate with the cell with the highest RSSI value.
B. The client will associate with the cell with the lowest SNR value.
C. The client will associate with the cell broadcasting the highest 802.11e value.
D. The client will associate with the cell broadcasting the highest TSPEC value.
E. The client will associate with the cell broadcasting the lowest mandatory date rate.
F. The client will associate with the cell broadcasting the highest data rate.
G. The client will associate with the first cell that advertises U-APSD.
Answer: A,B

Cisco   642-742   642-742 braindump   642-742

NO.5 What is the recommended minimum speed at the edge of the cells in an 802.11g network for a good
Cisco VoWLAN deployment?
A. 11 Mb/s
B. 12 Mb/s
C. 18 Mb/s
D. 36 Mb/s
E. 54 Mb/s
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which three statements are true about load-based Call Admission Control? (Choose three.)
A. grants a VoWLAN client-initiated call based on the number of active clients associated to the AP
B. grants a VoWLAN client-initiated call based on channel bandwidth capacity
C. uses the 802.11i specifications
D. uses ADDTS action frames
E. requires a WMM-enabled client
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.7 Using proper VoWLAN design practice, what would be a reasonable total number of calls for a properly
designed 802.11a cell to ensure call quality?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 14
D. 20
E. 25
F. 27
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which three options are benefits of U-APSD? (Choose three.)
A. synchronization of the transmission and reception of voice frames
B. bandwidth reservation
C. optimized power-save mode periods
D. increased call capacity
E. priority bandwidth and polling
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.9 The AP has been properly configured for a VoWLAN survey. The RF environment contains a noise of
-87 to -90 dBm. What would be the target value for the cell edge reading?
A. -55 dBm
B. -60 dBm
C. -62 dBm
D. -67 dBm
E. -70 dBm
F. -73 dBm
Answer: C

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NO.10 Using proper VoWLAN design practice, what would be a reasonable total number of calls for a properly
designed 802.11g cell to ensure call quality?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 14
D. 20
E. 25
F. 27
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 00M-609
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Insurance Industry Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1 Exam )

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NO.1 What is one of the innovations for channels that is new on the horizon?
A. Automated language translation
B. Automated billing
C. Automated data processing
D. Automated payments
Answer: C

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B. An understanding of risk at an enterprise and an individual level
C. A business case for reducing risk
D. More documentation
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is growing exponentially and has implications for the insurance industry?
A. Mobile data processing
B. Digital communications
C. Digital data processing
D. Digital data storage
Answer: D

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NO.4 What do insurers need to develop to meet customers ¯ needs
A. Fewer branch offices
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C. Configurable set of insurance products
D. More complicated product offerings
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-579
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 Fundamentals)

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NO.1 The customer tells the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) administrator that a Windows file server has
to be upgraded and therefore is put into maintenance. The manager wants to have the data immediately
available for restore in the event of problems. What is one of the actions of the TSM administrator?
A. move data
B. export node
C. copy activedata
D. prepare backupset
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which software must be installed to implement journal-based backups in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager
V6.3?
A. Server
B. Journaler
C. Server API
D. Backup-Archive client
Answer: D

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NO.3 When running a backup of a client which has journaling enabled, which option for a manual backup
using the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager GUI performs a normal incremental backup without using the
journal?
A. Nojournal
B. Incremental
C. Incremental (complete)
D. Incremental (without journal)
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which command creates an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager policy set?
A. Define policyset my_domain my_policy
B. Create policyset my_domain my_policy
C. Activate policyset my_domain my_policy
D. Create new policyset my_domain my_policy
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement about the Wheel of Life is true?
A. Expiration is a prerequisite for reclamation.
B. Migration frees wasted space on sequential volumes.
C. Backup storage pool moves the backup data to the next storage pool.
D. The daily administrative tasks should run in a specific order because it speeds up the whole
housekeeping process
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are two benefits of an adaptive subfile backup? (Choose two.)
A. Large backup window
B. Limited connection time
C. Incremental forever backup
D. Longer Windows file retention
E. Reduced bandwidth requirements
Answer: B,E

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NO.7 A client node's file is bound to a management class that has an archive retention set to one year. The
file on that client is archived once a month for one year. At the end of one year how many copies of the
archived file exist in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager?
A. 7
B. 12
C. 19
D. 30
Answer: B

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NO.8 A new IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) Backup-Archive client must be set up on a TSM Server. This
client requires a new policy with three generations of backups for existing files, two generations of deleted
files, and the older generations to be kept for two months. This new client, called NEWCLT, will be part of
policy domain POLDOM. Which sequence of commands will accomplish this?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B

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NO.9 A customer created a schedule and is checking the results. What is the correct sequence of a
successful incremental scheduled backup?
A. Future, pending, started, completed
B. Future, waiting, started, running, completed
C. Future, started, pending, running, completed
D. Future, pending, started, running, completed
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which command grants access to another node from the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Server
administrative command line?
A. grant proxy node
B. set node access
C. grant node proxy
D. grant node access
Answer: A

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NO.11 IBM Tivoli Storage Manager deduplication is supported on which two resources? (Choose two.)
A. Client
B. LTO tape
C. Backup tape pool
D. Random access disk pool
E. Sequential access disk pool
Answer: A,E

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NO.12 All client data has been backed up to the primary pools. What is the recommended flow of data within
the storage hierarchy?
A. The storage pool data is backed up.
B. The storage pool data is backed up and then migrated and reclaimed.
C. The storage pool data is migrated to the next pool and then backed up.
D. The data stays in the pool, and the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager database is backed up
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which two statements are true about a point-in-time restore? (Choose two.)
A. Point-in-time restores can be performed for image backups and the system state data for Windows.
B. Files which were deleted from the client workstation prior to the point-in-time specified will be restored.
C. Selective or incremental-by-date backups must be used to restore the state that existed at a specific
date and time.
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) restores file versions from the most recent backup before the
specified point-in-time date.
E. If the requested point-in-time restore date and time is prior to the oldest version maintained by TSM,
the object will be restored.
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 Which protocol can be used to back up network attached storage file systems efficiently with IBM Tivoli
Storage Manager V6.3?
A. Write Anywhere File Layout (WAFL)
B. Network Data Backup Protocol (NDBP)
C. Network Data Management Protocol (NDMP)
D. Network Attached Storage Backup Protocol (NASBP)
Answer: C

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NO.15 What are three files that are preserved during the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Windows client upgrade?
(Choose three.)
A. dsm.opt
B. dsm.sys
C. tsm.options
D. dsmerror.log
E. dsmsched.log
F. dsmwebcl.out
Answer: A,D,E

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