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Exam Code: I10-003
Exam Name: XML Master (XML Master Professional Database Administrator)
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Total Q&A: 39 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 Four separate operating requirements and four individual storage management methods for
XML
document data are listed below.
Considering the general characteristics, which individual management method ([Management
Methods]) combines most optimally with which requirement ([Operating Requirements])?
[Operating Requirements]
1. Retrieve a portion of the XML document according to values in the XML document
2. Identify the XML document by unique values, and retrieve the entire XML document
3. Perform aggregation and statistical calculations of the values in the XML document

NO.2 Assume that a certain XMLDB has an HTTP listener function, and can receive XML documents
via
HTTP protocol.
In this case, the XMLDB follows [Procedure] below to identify the character encoding method of
the XML document received.
[Procedure]
(1) If the XML document character encoding method can be determined from the HTTP request
header, process the XML document character encoding according to the HTTP request header
information.
(2) If the XML document character encoding method cannot be determined from the HTTP request
header, identify the character encoding from the XML document itself
Select which is correct as the identified character encoding resulting from the procedure above
when the XMLDB receives a well-formed XML document according to [Conditions] below. Assume
that the XMLDB follows RFC3023.
[Conditions]
The actual character encoding method for XML document is "UTF-16;" however, no XML
declaration is specified.
The HTTP request header defines "Content-Type: text/xml." however, the charset parameter is not
defined in this Content-Type header field.
A. US-ASCII
B. UTF-8
C. UTF-16
D. The character encoding method is determined from system locale, and is therefore
undetermined
Answer: A

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NO.3 Continuously check the data types for the values in the XML document, and search through
data using queries on the XML document
[Management Methods]
A) XML document file (text file) management via file system
B) Management via RDB (relational database), and program for storing data from an XML
document into the RDB (assume the RDB does not maintain an XML document tree structure)
C) Management via XMLDB, using XML Schema definitions
D) Management via XMLDB, without using XML Schema definitions
A. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
B. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
C. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
Answer: A

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4. Select which of the following is not a correct description regarding dynamic context defined by
XQuery 1.0.
A. Dynamic context is information that is available at the time the expression is evaluated
B. The dynamic context consists of all the components of the static context (default element/type
namespace, etc.), and additional components (context item, etc.)
C. The value of context size (one of the dynamic context components) can be obtained using the
"fn:last()" function
D. Query prolog cannot be used to set the value for any of the dynamic context components
Answer: D

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NO.4 Assume that you wish to improve the response time when executing the following [XQuery]
on a
certain XMLDB.
Which one of the answers below is not an appropriate point to be checked?
Assume that the XMLDB does not have any automated optimization functions related to the
answer choices.
A. Revise the [XQuery] expression
B. Revise the configuration of the relevant XML data index
C. Investigate the disk capacity size used by the XMLDB
D. Investigate the influence of any exclusive access controls performed by other processes when
executing the [XQuery]
Answer: C

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NO.5 Assume that perfect fidelity of a complete XML document is required in a certain XML
document.
Select the most suitable method for providing perfect XML document fidelity when storing an XML
document using the following methods.
Here "perfect XML document fidelity" means that an XML document retrieved from the XMLDB is
exactly the same as the original XML document prior to XMLDB insertion, completely identical
when compared using binary, including empty element notations, whitespace locations, etc.
A. Store the XML document as a model based on XPath 1.0
B. Store the XML document as a model based on XML Information Set (Infoset)
C. Store the XML document as a BLOB (Binary Large Object) type with no character encoding
method defined
D. Store the XML document as an NCLOB (National Character Large Object) type for which UTF-
8 has been defined as the character encoding method
Answer: C

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Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on vSphere 5 (Private Beta))
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Total Q&A: 288 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates
that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory.
Which action can be taken to resolve this problem.?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) is
used? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk. Management
has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on demand if requested.
Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of the
datastore.
B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.
C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts of the
virtual machine.
D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator has deployed a new virtual machine on an ESXi 5.x host. Users are complaining of poor
performance on the application running on the virtual machine. Performance tools display the results
shown in the exhibit.
Which two tasks might improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Add a vCPU to the virtual machine
B. Remove CPU affinity on the advanced CPU setting of the virtual machine
C. Migrate the virtual machine to another ESXi host
D. Remove the limit on the CPU settings of the virtual machine
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update. After
confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault
Tolerance on the virtual machine and suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.
Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose two.)
A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.
B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the "-delta.vmdk" extension.
C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.
D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA)
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides linked-clone
technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using Storage
vMotion? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.
Which three options are available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.10 An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service.
What three options are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.11 What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots?
(Choose three.)
A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.
B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.
C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.
D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.
E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.12 An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that
the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected?
(Choose two.)
A. Stopped -Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM -The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine and
is not protected
C. Need Primary VM -The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine
cannot be generated.
D. Disabled -Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.xhost? (Choose two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The
administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster.
Which setting satisfies this requirement?
A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family
Answer: D

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NO.15 ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a
10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been
deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not
power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this
template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.16 Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual machine.
The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi host containing the
virtual machine.
What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or
datastores?
A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore
B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion
C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore
D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores
Answer: A

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NO.17 An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible de-duplication
store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)
A. Two CIFS shares
B. Two RDMs on a FCP array
C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array
D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM
E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.18 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.19 Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore
alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing)
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.20 Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a performance
benefit? (Choose two.)
A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: VCAD510
Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Associate - Data Center Virtualization (VCA-DCV) Exam)
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Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 You are a consultant and your newest client is concerned about the visibility of performance
and capacity related information to help them manage their new VMware environment more
efficiently. Which of the following will enable them to be proactive in their monitoring?
A. Scheduled PowerShell scripts to gather performance data
B. vCenter Operations Manager (vC OPS)
C. vCenter advanced performance charts
D. vCenter Site Recovery Manager
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are the VMware administrator for your local hospital. A fellow administrator has asked
what role a datastore plays in the environment. Which of the following is a good definition of a
datastore?
A. A datastore is used by the hypervisor to swap local memory content if needed
B. A datastore is used as the destination for the core dump file
C. A datastore is used by the hypervisor to store logs and performance data
D. A datastore is where virtual machine's files are stored
Answer: D

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NO.3 You manage a cluster of ESXi hosts using vCenter Server. You notice that some ESXi hosts are
more heavily burdened than others. Which feature of vCenter server will potentially help automate
the load balancing of the ESXi hosts?
A. Fault Tolerance
B. Distributed Power Management
C. Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS)
D. High Availability
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/support/vsphere5 /doc/vsp_vc50_u2_rel_notes.html(search for
DRS)

NO.4 What is a scalability challenge that vSphere can address?
A. Change management processes are simplified
B. Automatic balancing of virtual machines after adding new physical servers
C. Easier disaster recovery processes
D. Users have self-service provisioning of virtual machine workloads
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/techpaper/Whats-New-VMware-vSphere-51-Platform
-Technical-Whitepaper.pdf(page 12)

NO.5 You are considering using virtual machines for your new corporate email servers. You are
giving examples to your manager of the benefits this will provide. Which two examples are true?
(Choose two.)
A. Virtual machines can be reverted to prior states to make recovery from accidents simpler.
B. Virtual machines perform faster than physical machines using the same hardware.
C. Virtual machines allow you to add components such as network cards and hard disks while the
VM is running.
D. Virtual machines automatically increase and decrease their allocated memory while running.
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 Which vSphere feature allows for more efficient storage usage?
A. Snapshots
B. Fast Provisioning
C. Thin Provisioning
D. Storage vMotion
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/Storage-with-VMware-vSphere.pdf

NO.7 Your manager asks you: "What is the relationship between vMotion and VMware's High
Availability (HA) feature?" What do you tell him?
A. vMotion uses VMware's High Availability (HA) feature to move the VMs while they are running.
B. VMware's High Availability (HA) feature uses vMotion to move the VMs after a failure.
C. There is no interdependency between these two features.
D. Either feature only functions if the VMs are powered off.
Answer: B

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Reference:https://communities.vmware.com/thread/ 405330?start=0&tstart=0

NO.8 You have a VMware environment and you have noticed that the storage capacity of your
datastores varies widely. You would like to maximize the storage environment by balancing the
space utilization across each of the datastores. Which of the following is a viable solution?
A. Storage I/O Control
B. vSphere APIs for Array Integration (VAAI)
C. vSphere APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA)
D. Storage Distributed Resource Scheduler (SDRS)
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/vmw-vsphr-5-1-stor-drs-uslet-101-web.pdf(page 5,
first para)

NO.9 Your manager wants to know how virtual machines are going to benefit the organization.
What two statements accurately explain what virtual machines do? (Choose two.)
A. Allow users to recover deleted files themselves.
B. Reduce your application licensing costs.
C. Provide higher up time than physical servers.
D. Reduce the number of physical servers.
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 Which VMware product allows for non-disruptive disaster recovery testing?
A. vCenter Operations Manager
B. vSphere Replication
C. Site Recovery Manager
D. vCenter Configuration Manager
Answer: C

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Reference:https://www.vmware.com/products/site-recovery-manager/

NO.11 What does virtualization do?
A. Converts hardware into software
B. Converts software into hardware
C. Causes your servers to consume less power
D. Causes your servers to run lighter workloads
Answer: A

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NO.12 You have a vSphere cluster managed by vCenter. One of the VMs is running a critical
application that is very sensitive to unplanned or sudden reboots. You wish to protect this VM from
potential data loss. Which of the following features will help you?
A. vSphere Replication
B. Fault Tolerance (FT)
C. High Availability (HA)
D. vMotion
Answer: B

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Reference:http://en.community.dell.com/techcenter/virtualization/w/wiki/vmware-vsphere-fault
tolerance.aspx

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A. vCenter Operations Manager
B. vCenter Change Management
C. vCenter Configuration Manager
D. vCloud Director
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NO.14 You are explaining to your manager the different types of storage devices supported in
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A. NFS
B. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)
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NO.15 You work for a convenience store chain that has a full data center including shared storage and
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Which solution will meet these requirements?
A. Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS)
B. Storage DRS
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NO.1 Which three statements are true about the catalogs when used for extracting the data from a repository?
(Choose three.)
A. You can choose which attributes are to be extracted.
B. You can choose which record status should be included.
C. You can choose subset rules defined on a different master catalog.
D. You can choose anyrulebase if there are any transformation rules to be applied.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 What are six types of command qualifiers supported by MasterCatalogRecord web services? (Choose
six.)
A. Add
B. Modify
C. Delete
D. MetaData
E. ValidValues
F. ValidValuesInit
G. Validate/Process
Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G

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NO.3 What can be used to retrieve all records that match a value across all repositories?
A. Text Search
B. Event Search
C. Subset Rules
D. Record Search
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which activity must be used to send an e-mail message?
A. Send
B. HandleMessaging
C. SendProtocolMessage
D. ProcessServiceMessage
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following parameters are required to retrieve a deleted record using a web service query?
A. RECORD_ID and ACTIVE
B. RECORD_STATE and ACTIVE
C. RECORD_VERSION and ACTIVE
D. RECORD_ID and RECORD_STATE
E. No parameters settings are required
F. RECORD_VERSION and RECORD_ID
Answer: B

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NO.6 To enable text search continuous indexing, the Text Indexing Enabled property is set to which option?
A. Online
B. Offline
C. Discrete
D. Continuous
E. User Enabled
Answer: B

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NO.7 The following sample section of a rulebase will result in the displaying of which alerts on the UI?
A. Warning Only
B. Information Only
C. Severe Error Only
D. No alerts will be presented
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two can an input map use to assign an attribute a value? (Choose two.)
A. hard-coded value
B. a concatenation of two or moredatasource columns
C. an expression based on the value of a child record attribute
D. a user-supplied value provided during execution of the import event
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 Which three are supported command types for the MasterCatalogRecord web services? (Choose
three.)
A. Add
B. Copy
C. Query
D. Modify
E. Compare
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 Which two values can be set for a user via the User Accounts Administration page? (Choose two.)
A. Date Format
B. Default Repository
C. Activate Delegation
D. Activate Auto-Approval
E. Default Catalog Format
F. Activate Out-Of-Office Notification
Answer: A,C

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NO.11 You delete the log files in the MQ_COMMON_DIR/Work directory. What is affected?
A. Elink log
B. Event log
C. Record History
D. Repository History
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following statements is incorrect when using a database table as a CIM data source?
A. Any new records added to the table are immediately available to CIM
B. The table or view must reside in the same database instance that CIM is using
C. If the data source contains any attributes of typedate, all such attributes must have the same date
format
D. It is not possible to provide CIM specific column names for the table when defining the data source
properties
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which two configurable settings are related to workflow in TIBCO CIM Configurator? (Choose two.)
A. Workflow Cache Size
B. Workflow Timeout Value
C. Workflow Restart Attempts
D. Workflow Manager Directory
E. Workflow File Extension Default
Answer: C,D

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NO.14 Which two statements are true about Subflow and SpawnWorkflow activities? (Choose two.)
A. BothSubflows and SpawnWorkflows can be nested.
B. Subflows can be nested, but SpawnWorkflows can not.
C. Both execution modes are supported by both activities.
D. SpawnWorkflow is ASYNCHR and Subflow is SYNCHR.
E. Subflow is ASYNCHR and SpawnWorkflow is SYNCHR.
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 Which three statements are true about context variables for a rulebase? (Choose three.)
A. The SESSION object requires explicit declaration in therulebase.
B. Previous confirmed and unconfirmed version records can be accessed.
C. Attribute access can be restricted to certain roles using context variables.
D. RECORD_ACTION is a special variable and can be directly used for operation.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.16 Which TIBCO CIM utility is used to apply a hot fix?
A. tibcoUtil
B. hotfixUtil
C. migrateUtil
D. customUtil
E. tibcoCIMUtil
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which three ProgrammingOperators are supported while defining new conditions and actions for
Business Process Rules? (Choose three.)
A. equals
B. lessThan
C. notEqualTo
D. greaterThanEqual
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.18 A string type attribute that is set to 0 length will default to what actual length?
A. 32 characters
B. 512 characters
C. 256 characters
D. 1000 characters
Answer: C

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NO.19 The workflow activities that support parallel processing can be tuned for performance. This can be
achieved by configuring a parameter for the activity RecordPerAsyncCall. What is the default value for
this parameter?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 50
D. 100
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which three are valid topic names with TIBCO CIM? (Choose three.)
A. T_ECM_CORE_ADMIN
B. T_ECM_CORE_RULE_CACHE
C. T_ECM_CORE_OBJECT_CACHE
D. T_ECM_CORE_REPOSITORY_CACHE
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about selector functions? (Choose two.)
A. A selector's conditional expression can refer to values of the message body.
B. They are available for use in the bridging functions, helping to reduce unnecessary network traffic.
C. They are useful when used in conjunction with topic browser functions.
D. They are available to control the flow of messages along a route.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 When a single message consumer is connected with an EMS server, which action can be used to
improve message consumption?
A. Enabling automatic acknowledge of all messages by the session
B. Changing delivery mode from PERSISTENT to NON_PERSISTENT
C. Increasing the prefetch value
D. Creating another instance of EMS server
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which command displays message count delivered to a queue receiver?
A. Show consumers
B. Show receivers
C. Show connections
D. Show users
Answer: A

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NO.4 Atopic sales, topic is bridged to two queues: FINANCE.Q and AUDIT.Q. Ten messages are sent on the
topic SALES.TOPIC. A consumer reads ten messages from FINANCE.Q.
How many messages are now in the AUDIT.Q?
A. zero
B. five
C. ten
D. twenty
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two conditions can cause messages in a queue to be moved to the undelivered queue? (Choose
two.)
A. The number of delivery attempts has reached the limit defined for the queue.
B. The number of pending messages has reached the limit defined for the queue.
C. The length of time the message has been retained in the queue has exceeded the limit defined for the
queue.
D. The overflow policy for the queue has been set to discard the oldest messages.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 A dynamic queue named q1 has been created by an EMS client.
What will be the result of executing the following command: create queue q1?
A. The command will fail saying the queue already exists.
B. The command will fail if queue has connected receivers.
C. The command will succeed and queue will be promoted to static.
D. The command will succeed and dynamic queue will be renamed.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which command creates a connection factory of type queue?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

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NO.8 The company naming standard states that all queue names must start with the letter C.
How can the administrator of the EMS server enforce this naming standard for dynamic queues?
A. By disabling creation of dynamic destinations in the tibemsd.conf file
B. By changing create-destination permission for users
C. By having c. > as the only entry with a wildcard in the queues.conf file
D. By setting a rule to add c. as a prefix to all dynamic queues
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which two statements are true about the listen parameter? (Choose two.)
A. The listen parameter is set in the tibemsd.conf file.
B. Multiple listen parameters can be set in the TIBCO EMS configuration file.
C. TCP is the only protocol supported in the listen parameter.
D. The listen parameter is set in the transports, conf file.
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 How does a backup fault-tolerant server detect a failure of the primary fault-tolerant server?
A. TCP heartbeats sent from the primary server
B. TCP heartbeats sent from the backup server
C. Multicast heartbeats sent from the primary server
D. Multicast heartbeats sent from the backup server
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which two statements are true about routing queue messages? (Choose two.)
A. Routed queue messages can travel to adjacent servers without reaching the home queue.
B. Each server in the route path must have its queue defined as global.
C. The concept of zones and hops does not apply to queue messages.
D. Queue messages can travel multiple hops.
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 Which two actions are most likely to improve EMS server performance.? (Choose two.)
A. Adding an additional CPU to the server running EMS
B. Improving physical disk performance
C. Switching from a file-based store to a database store
D. Increasing network I/O capacity on the server
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 Which two statements are true about synchronous and asynchronous message consumption?
(Choose two.)
A. For synchronous consumption, the message consumer explicitly invokes a receive call on the topic or
queue.
B. The consumer can receive messages synchronously by registering a synchronous message listener to
receive the messages.
C. When asynchronously receiving messages, the consumer remains blocked until a message arrives.
D. For asynchronous consumption, a message listener can be implemented that serves as an
asynchronous event handler for messages.
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 Which three commands will update EMS configuration files when an exclusive commit command is
issued from EMS? (Choose three.)
A. set server client trace=enabled
B. set server password=password
C. set server authorization=enabled
D. set server track_message_ids=enabled
E. set server routing=enabled
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.15 An EMS server and client are receiving heartbeats. Given the following EMS server settings:
-client_timeout_server_connection = 20 seconds -server_timeout_client_connection = 10 seconds
What are two possible outcomes? (Choose two.)
A. If EMS server does not receive heartbeats from a client for a period exceeding 10 seconds, the EMS
server will close the connection.
B. If EMS server does not receive heartbeats from a client for a period exceeding 20 seconds, the EMS
server will close the connection.
C. If a client does not receive heartbeats from EMS server for a period exceeding 10 seconds, the client
will close the connection.
D. If a client does not receive heartbeats from EMS server for a period exceeding 20 seconds, the client
will close the connection.
Answer: A,D

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NO.1 6.1.1: Which of the following is not true about the nature of governance?
A. All of these are characterisitics of governance.
B. Provides guidance on the effective use of resources to achieve the organization's strategic objectives
C. Ensure that all actions and related decisions are available to be examined by authorized parties
D. All decisions taken, processes used and their implementation will not be allowed to create unfair
advantage to any one particular party.
E. All involved parties have a commitment to adhere to procedures, processes and authority structures
established by the organisation.
Answer: A

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NO.2 3.1.3: In the high level Technical Reference Model ____.
A. all of these
B. the application directly communicates to the outside environment
C. the application communicates with the application platform through the communications infrastructure
interface
D. it is possible to analyze performance crtieria
E. the communication infrastructure is very diverse
Answer: E

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application architecture
A. managing code quality
B. generating service level agreements
C. regression testing
D. gap analysis
E. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.4 1.A.5: During the Architecture Vision phase, what would be a typical source of enterprise wide
constraints?
A. The results of a detailed gap analysis
B. The project plan for the given architecture activity
C. External benchmarks
D. The organization's business and architecture principles
E. The architecture contract
Answer: D

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NO.5 5.2: The U.S. Department of Defense C4ISR Architecture framework (now DODAF) provides an
integrated architecture model with three views. Which of these sets of views is provided?
A. logical, physical, financial
B. operational, technical, systems
C. logical, physical, operational
D. strategic, tactical, operational
E. strategic, systems, operations
Answer: B

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NO.6 1.E.2: During Phase E - Opportunties and Solutions, a gap analysis can be used to compare the ____
between the as-is and the to-be architecture.
A. requirements
B. Solution Building Blocks
C. Architecture Building Blocks
D. business functions
E. standards
Answer: D

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NO.7 1.P.3: Which of the following statements about architecture principles is most true?
A. Architecture principles must be tailored to the requirements of a given architecture project
B. Architecture principles are intended to be enduring and seldom amended
C. Architecture principles cannot transcend the organization's business strategies and objectives
D. Executive Management can define principles as a means of enforcing compliance to its policies and
rules
E. Due to their sensitive nature, architecture principles should be kept confidential
Answer: B

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NO.8 3.1.1: Which of the following would be a good example of an infrastructure application?
A. Virtual Private Network
B. System and Network Management system
C. e-Mail
D. Office (desktop) software
E. All of these
Answer: E

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NO.9 6.2.2: In TOGAF's Architecture Governance organizational structure, which group is chiefly
responsible for deployment and operations?
A. domain architects
B. IT service management
C. Chief Information Officer/Chief Technology Officer
D. program management office
E. technical support
Answer: B

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NO.10 1.G.1: What are the key inputs to Phase G - Implementation Governance?
A. reusable solution building blocks
B. statement of architecture work
C. request for architecture work
D. all of these items
E. impact analysis
Answer: D

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NO.11 1.A.2: Typically, business goals and drivers have already been established and need only be validated.
If this is not true, what process should be followed?
A. Resequence the project to occur later in the overall program
B. The team should work with the project sponsor to create a set of goals and objectives and to validate
those goals and objectives with top management
C. The project team should create a set of placeholder goals and objectives
D. Place the project on hold until a suitable set of business goals and objectives can be defined by top
management
E. Benchmark with a similar, noncompeting organization, and adopt their best practices for business
goals and objectives
Answer: B

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NO.12 2.5: Who usually initiates a Request for Architecture Work?
A. the sponsoring organization
B. the architecture organization
C. the CIO/CTO
D. the architecture governance board
E. senior management
Answer: A

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NO.13 1.CA.1: All of the following elements are required in the Application Architecture Baseline Document
except ____.
A. architecture models of the candidate system(s)
B. business and organization units supported
C. precedent and successor applications
D. owner(s) or business unit(s) responsible for requirements
E. hardware and software platforms used
Answer: A

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NO.14 4.1.4: The Architecture Continuum _____ the Solutions Continuum.
A. drives
B. is driven by
C. is designed to satisfy
D. is based on
E. guides and supports the evolution of
Answer: E

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NO.15 1.H.1: As the ADM cycle is completed for a given architecture program, the architecture staff is
responsible for ____.
A. Project planning
B. Final appraisal of the implemented architecture
C. Ongoing monitoring of business and technology changes related to the architecture work
D. Implementation Governance
E. Internal marketing of the solution
Answer: C

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NO.16 2.18: A Technical Architecture Report should contain all of these items except ___.
A. requirements traceability analysis
B. project impact analysis
C. technology architecture models
D. technical specification for each building block
E. gap analysis report
Answer: B

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NO.17 1.D.2: The TOGAF Technical Reference Model _____.
A. is intended as an example and should be tailored to the organization's needs
B. must be used "as is" for developing comprehensive architecture models
C. contains several industry specific frameworks
D. is intended to contain the Enterprise Continuum
E. contains only solution building blocks
Answer: A

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NO.18 1.F.1: What is the objective of Phase F?
A. To establish the IT Governance framework that will be used to direct deployment.
B. To sort the implementation projects into priority order for implementation and migration.
C. To implement change management processes that will be used to manage the implementation
projects.
D. To validate the architecture vision.
E. All of these tasks
Answer: B

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NO.19 1.R.1: When can new requirements be added to the requirement management repository?
A. during each phase of the ADM
B. at the Architecture Vision phase
C. anytime during Phases A through D
D. only upon completion of a business scenario
E. when submitting the Request for Architecture Work
Answer: A

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NO.20 2.23: The final version of an Impact Analysis should contain all of the following except _____.
A. prioritized projects
B. enhanced budget forecasts
C. time ordered sequencing
D. Implementation recommendations
E. measures of effectiveness
Answer: B

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Exam Code: OG0-093
Exam Name: The Open Group (TOGAF 9 Combined Part 1 and Part 2)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 219 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-28

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NO.1 In TOGAF, What is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable?
A. An artifact contains one or more deliverables
B. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between them
C. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the Architect
D. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture project
E. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are not
Answer: E

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NO.2 Which of the following reasons best describes why the ADM numbering scheme for versioning output is
an example and not mandatory?
A. To show the evolution of deliverables
B. To permit adaptation as required
C. To enable use with the Architecture Content Framework
D. To support change management
Answer: B

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NO.3 According to TOGAF, the recommended dimensions used to define the scope of an architecture
include all the following, except:
A. Architecture Domains
B. Enterprise Focus
C. Level of Detail
D. Subject Matter
E. Time Period
Answer: D

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NO.4 According to TOGAF, where should architecture governance artifacts be stored?
A. In the Integrated Information Infrastructure Reference Model
B. In the Standards Information Base
C. In the Foundation Architecture
D. In the Architecture Repository
Answer: D

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NO.5 According to TOGAF, Which of the following are the architecture domains that are commonly accepted
subsets of an overall enterprise architecture?
A. Application, Business, Data, Technology
B. Capability, Segment, Strategic
C. Context, Definition, Governance, Transformation
D. Definition, Realization, Transition, Vision
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which one of the following statements about the structure of the TOGAF 9 document is true.?
A. Part I describes the TOGAF approach to Enterprise Architecture
B. Part II describes the definitions of terms used and the changes between versions of TOGAF
C. Part III describes requirements management and is considered to be the core of TOGAF
D. Part IV describes the ADM: a collection of guidelines and techniques used in TOGAF 9
Answer: A

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NO.7 What part of the Architecture Repository holds specifications toWhich architectures must conform?
A. Standards Information Base
B. Enterprise Continuum
C. Governance Log
D. Architecture Landscape
E. Reference Library
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which one of the following describes classification methods for architecture and solution artifacts
within the Architecture Repository?
A. Architecture Landscape
B. Architecture Vision
C. Enterprise Continuum
D. Governance Log
E. Standards Information Base
Answer: C

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NO.9 According to the TOGAF Document Categorization Model, Which category describes a technique that is
referenced by processes categorized as TOGAF Core and TOGAF Mandated?
A. TOGAF Guidelines and Techniques
B. TOGAF Recommended
C. TOGAF Supporting
D. TOGAF Extension
Answer: B

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NO.10 What level of the Architecture Landscape provides a long-term summary view of the entire enterprise?
A. Capability Architecture
B. Operational Architecture
C. Segment Architecture
D. Strategic Architecture
E. Tactical Architecture
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which one of the following is NOT an element of an architecture framework?
A. A common vocabulary
B. A list of recommended standards
C. A method for designing an information system in terms of building blocks
D. A set of structuresWhichcan be used to develop a broad range of architectures
E. A system development lifecycle method for software engineering
Answer: E

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NO.12 Which phase of the ADM is used to finalize a set of transition architectures that will support
implementation?
A. Phase D
B. Phase E
C. Phase F
D. Phase G
E. Phase H
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following is the architecture domain that describes the logical software and hardware
capabilities?
A. Application Architecture
B. Business Architecture
C. Data Architecture
D. Technology Architecture
Answer: D

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NO.14 According to TOGAF, Which one of the following best describes an enterprise architecture?
A. An architecture of a commercial organization
B. An architecture that consists of more than one subsidiary company
C. An architecture that crosses multiple systems, and multiple functional groups within the enterprise
D. The highest level of architecture that can be achieved in a given organization
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which section of the TOGAF document describes the processes, skills and roles to establish and
operate an architecture function within an enterprise?
A. Part II: Architecture Development Method
B. Part III: ADM Guidelines and Techniques
C. Part IV: Architecture Content Framework
D. Part VI: TOGAF Reference Models
E. Part VII: Architecture Capability Framework
Answer: E

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NO.16 According to the TOGAF Document Categorization Model, Which category is for resources NOT
referenced by content within the other categories?
A. TOGAF Core
B. TOGAF Extension
C. TOGAF Mandatory
D. TOGAF Recommended
E. TOGAF Supporting
Answer: E

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NO.17 Which one of the following best describes the implications of TOGAF being a generic framework?
A. The organization must utilize an architecture tool in order to tailor the templates for use
B. It must be adapted to satisfy organization specific requirements
C. It can be utilized by most enterprises without further customization
D. It can only be used for enterprise level architecture projects E. It should only be employed under the
supervision of highly trained consultants
Answer: B

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NO.18 Complete the sentence. To promote effective architectural activity within the enterprise, TOGAF 9
recommends the establishment of a(n) _____
A. Enterprise Architecture Capability
B. IT Governing Board
C. Program Management Office
D. Quality Assurance department
E. Service Management department
Answer: A

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NO.19 Complete the sentence. TOGAF 9 Part III provides techniques, such as developing principles and gap
analysis, to support tasks within the ______
A. Architecture Capability Framework
B. Architecture Continuum
C. Architecture Development Method
D. Architecture Landscape
E. Architecture Repository
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which one of the following lists the main components within the TOGAF Architecture Repository?
A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, Reference
Library, Compliance Strategy
B. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB, Reference
Library, Governance Model
C. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
D. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
Answer: D

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