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Exam Code: C2040-918
Exam Name: Developing Portlets and Web Applications with IBM WebSphere Portlet Factory 7.0
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Exam Code: C2040-911
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 Solution Development
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Exam Code: C2090-303
Exam Name: IBM InfoSphere DataStage v9.1
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NO.1 Anna has been testing a model and is concerned about the time certain actions seem to be taking. Her
development environment is a high-end system, and other portlets she has developed have not exhibited
the kind of response time lag that she and her testers perceive. She suspects one of the data services
builders is experiencing network latency, but is unsure where the real problem lies. What actions can she
take to help isolate the performance issue?
A. Add counters to the builder calls that are suspect.
B. Consult the performance log, which is created by default with each model run.
C. Enable system tracing in the run configuration tab to log the execution time for each action (page or
method).
D. Dedicate a larger Java HEAP_SIZE to the main method associated with the model that is suspect.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Tim has a web application that accesses a database through a provider model containing SQL Call
builders. He thinks there might be a performance problem with one or more of the database calls. How
can he get WebSphere Portlet Factory to log detailed performance information about all aspects of the
database access.?
A. He needs to use a SQL Override builder; this builder provides several fields that enable
detailed logging of performance information for database access.
B. He must enable DEBUG-level database performance tracing in the Log4J properties file and redeploy
the WAR file.
C. He must enable the Log Server Stats field in each SQL Call builder.
D. No changes are required; WebSphere Portlet Factory automatically logs performance statistics for all
executed actions, such as database access calls.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Pat wants to know how many web service calls are being made in a given time frame, how long on
average each web service call is taking, and how many web service calls are failing. How can Pat obtain
such performance information?
A. That information is not yet available from the WebSphere Portlet Factory web service support, but the
application can be built to log this information itself, if desired.
B. WebSphere Portlet Factory logs all requests, average latency and faults, in the deployed applications
WEB-INF/logs/event.log file.
C. WebSphere Portlet Factory logs web service requests, average latency and faults, in the deployed
applications WEB-INF/logs/serverStats.txt log file.
D. Enable this logging using the Performance field in the Web Service Call builder, and the
information comes back with the web service call results to the consumer model.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Jeffrey is reviewing the following section of a debugTracing.txt log.
What can he infer from this part of the log?
A. The main method took no time to execute.
B. The appMainPage took 46 seconds to load.
C. The varSampleApp variable changed during or after the appMainPage loaded.
D. The varSampleApp variable was set to Chicago prior to the loading of the appMainPage.
Answer: C

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NO.5 The primary use for the WebSphere Portlet Factory server configuration is?
A. To deliver your application to a production server.
B. To deploy, run, and test your application on a development server.
C. To create a WAR file for manual deployment to a production or development server.
D. To give your application access to APIs that are specific to the target server.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-089
Exam Name: System x Technical Fundamentals V11
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Exam Code: LOT-802
Exam Name: IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 System Administration Update
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Exam Code: 000-734
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NO.1 .Which of the following mail features are not available in the basic version of the Lotus
Notes client?
A. Message recall
B. Attention indicators
C. Choice of preview pane location
D. Reply to all without attachments
Answer: C

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NO.2 .Which of the following is required on the WebSphere server for Lotus Notes users who use
composite applications that contain portlet elements?
A. A Lotus Notes 8 client
B. Server client installer
C. The user's Lotus Notes id file
D. A Domino 8 server installation
Answer: B

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NO.3 .You want to restrict simple search to enhance server performance by preventing users from
searching databases on a server that do not have full-text search enabled. In which of the
following locations is this configured?
A. The server document
B. The server notes.ini
C. The server configuration document
D. The advanced properties of each database
Answer: D

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NO.4 .Directory assistance in Lotus Domino 8 enables you to specify when a secondary directory must
be used only for authentication. This provides which of the following features?
A. This blocks email from being forwarded to adjacent domains
B. This avoidsNAMELookups to reduce the number of ambiguous Name dialog boxes
C. Thishelp you validate your choice of host name for receiving authentication requests
D. This scans group member lists to ensure that each member exists in an available directory that
is configured in directory assistance
Answer: B

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NO.5 .The DB2 Access server facilitates your use of the Lotus Domino Designer view functions
for DB2. Which of the following are enabled by installing the DB2 Access server?
A. Replication
B. DB2 group locking
C. ACLs and reader lists
D. DB2 container storage
Answer: C

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NO.6 .The Lotus Notes 8 and integrated Sametime client may access the provisioning server
through which of the following methods?
A. SSL only
B. HTTP only
C. HTTP and NRPC
D. SSL and SSO only
Answer: B

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NO.7 .Denny, a Notes user, maintains a large amount of mail in his inbox. The administrator has
designated that Inbox Cleanup will occur on mail older than 14 days. Which of the
following is the result of the administrator enabling this feature?
A. All mail older than 14 days will be removed from the inbox
B. All mail older than 14 days will be deleted from themailfile
C. All mail older than 14 days will be moved to a new folder titled "expired"
D. All mail older than 14 days will be moved to the trash folder and must be restored by the user
Answer: A

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NO.8 .In general, how much space will a DB2 enabled Notes database utilize as compared to a
replica in the standard NSF format?
A. Equal size
B. Half the size
C. Two times more
D. Four times more
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Exam Code: M2140-664
Exam Name: IBM Rational Enterprise Modernization Sales Mastery Test v2
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Exam Code: A2010-591
Exam Name: Assess: Fundamentals of Applying Tivoli Service Delivery and Process Automation Solutions V3
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NO.1 Why is it important to define Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) for processes in the
solution design
phase?
A. KPIs track project success and if the promised value is delivered.
B. KPIs take a long time to implement in a GUI so they must be defined early in the project.
C. KPIs document the solution performance and indicate whether hardware needs to be
upgraded.
D. KPIs definitions are mandatory fields during product installation and without them the
installation
cannot progress.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer wants the service desk personnel to track leasing contracts for their IT
assets that are
currently maintained in an in-house developed application. How should the customer be
advised to
implement this requirement?
A. Use the Maximo Data Loader to load lease information into IBM Tivoli Asset Management
for IT
(TAMIT).
B. Leverage the customized asset application by using Application Designer to add a lease
contract
section to maintain contracts for each asset.
C. Use Integration Framework to load for the first time the lease contracts information into the
Lease
Contracts application, and then maintain those contracts with TAMIT
D. The customer should continue maintaining their leasing contracts in their own application.
Using the
Integration Framework, the information of each contract can be populated in the Lease
Contracts
application.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which solution can help reduce cost and minimize service disruptions through
automated service
request handling efficient change management, and optimized asset lifecycle management
across IT and
enterprise domains?
A. An integrated accounting and procurement solution.
B. A comprehensive IT asset and service management solution.
C. A proactive service level agreement modeling and enforcement solution.
D. An automated, self-service catalog for requesting end-to-end service provisioning.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What two types of information are provided by IBM Tivoli Application Dependency
Discovery Manager
to IBM SmartCloud Control Desk? (Choose two.)
A. Asset types
B. Configuration Items
C. Configuration Items Types
D. Classification Items Hierarchy
E. Classification Items Relationships
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 Why is the corporate vision and strategy important for a high level requirements
document.?
A. It provides an understanding of how current IT asset and service management processes
support
these requirements.
B. It provides an overview of the company's mission and market strategy which determines
the IT asset
and service management business requirements.
C. It provides company policies which determine the preferred vendors and influence the high
level
requirements for a IT asset and service management solution.
D. It provides a clear definition of the company goals, how they want to achieve these goals,
and what is
needed to achieve these goals which determines the IT asset and service management
business
requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which function supports a customer who would like to have a predefined work plan for
repetitive
maintenance work?
A. Job List
B. Job Plans
C. Tasks List
D. Tasks Plan
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer is using IBM SmartCloud Control Desk to automate incident, problem, and
change
management processes. The solution currently supports 15,000 end users but the customer
acquired and
integrated a company with an additional 5,000 end users. What does the customer need to
do to cover
the new end users?
A. Buy an additional 5,000 end user licenses
B. Build a separate instance of IBM SmartCloud Control Desk
C. Define the new users in the existing IBM SmartCloud Control Desk
D. Buy an IBM SmartCloud Control Desk for Internal Service Provider license
Answer: C

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NO.8 Given that an implementation of IBM SmartCloud Control Desk is integrated to a
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manager?
A. Use the Security module in IBM SmartCloud Control Desk
B. Alter the security properties in the LDAP system using an LDIF update
C. Use the Problem Management module in the IBM SmartCloud Control Desk
D. Modify the profile information access which the problem manager can change on their own
Answer: A

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Exam Code: A2180-608
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM WebSphere Process Server V7.0, Deployment
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NO.1 A clustered WebSphere Process Server (WPS) production environment consists of a
remote messaging
cluster with multiple active messaging engines (ME) configured for high throughput. During
the testing of
an application which uses MQ JMS export for in-take of messages, the integration developer
has found
out that the messages were arriving on the backend EIS application at random order which
was not
desirable. This was not the observed behavior when the application was tested in the
Universal Test
Environment (UTE) within WebSphere Integration Developer (WID).
Source Application --------> MQ JMS Export ----------> EIS Application
What is the combination of actions to reconfigure the resources in the production
environment in order to
achieve the expected behavior?
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 3
C. 1, 4
D. 2, 3
Answer: A

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NO.2 A deployment professional is installing a new business process application. The
deployment
professional is using a script installation with the installInteractive option so that they are
prompted for
values during the installation process. What is the reason for this installation approach?
A. The interactive configuration script provides an audit log of the installation for revision
control
purposes.
B. Installation with the interactive configuration script is faster than using the Integrated
Solutions Console
(ISC).
C. Some configuration values must be specified which are not available using the Integrated
Solutions
Console (ISC) wizard interface.
D. When configuring with an interactive script, it is not necessary to specify information about
the
application required data sources.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A retail company has the requirement to make frequent changes to a long running
MyProcessDiscount business process as newer versions of that process are introduced due
to changing
business needs. What approach should a deployment professional adopt to meet this
requirement?
A. Stop the older version of the MyProcessDiscount process template from the Integrated
Solutions Console (ISC), install the application containing the newer version of the business
process
template.
B. Use the Business Process Choreographer Explorer, select all the running instances with
name
MyProcessDiscount business process, then choose the Migrate option to migrate all
instances to the
currently valid version of the business
process template.
C. Use the Business Process Choreographer Explorer, if you see any running instances of
older version
of MyProcessDiscount process template,
wait till all the instances of that version of the template are completed, then remove the older
version of
the business process template and install the newer version of the business process
template.
D. Install the application containing the newer version of MyProcessDiscount process
template, then
using the Business Process Choreographer Explorer, monitor the state of the running
process instances
and, when execution is in the appropriate place in the flow of the business process, select the
business
process instances based on the older template only to migrate to the newer version.
Answer: D

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NO.4 WebSphere Process Server (WPS) V7.0 introduces a new Service Component
Architecture (SCA)
container. Which of the following changes in the architecture result in improved performance?
A. There is no dependency for an EJB container for WPS V7.0 applications.
B. The new Business Object Runtime Framework replaces the old Business Object
framework.
C. Code generation, validation, and packaging is fully covered during the application
deployment.
D. Applications for WPS V6.2 and previous releases are automatically migrated to V7.0
during
deployment.
Answer: A

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NO.5 In a company all the applications deployed in a WebSphere Process Server network
deployment
environment extensively leverage asynchronous messaging with JMS bindings. There is a
requirement to
resubmit the messages in case of infrastructure failures or planned shutdown.
What is the suggested message reliability level that could be proposed in this situation.?
A. Assured persistent
B. Reliable persistent
C. Reliable non-persistent
D. Best effort non-persistent
Answer: A

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NO.6 A deployment professional is asked to investigate a failure in a business process.
However, the specific
process instance being investigated is still running. After close examination, one of the
activities of the
process instance is stopped. What action should the deployment professional take to resolve
this issue so
that the current process navigation can continue?
A. Change Continue On Error setting of the process template to no but make sure this setting
is
overridden at the activity scope to a value of yes.
B. Change Continue On Error setting of the process template to yes and ensure this setting is
inherited at
the activity scope.
C. Examine the variables of the stopped activity and update the values as necessary, and
save the
settings.
D. Set the expiration for the stopped activity so that after a specified interval the activity
terminates and
the process can continue.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A deployment professional is performing a review of the audit and logging practices
being used. One of
the items under review is the current level of logging configured for the Human Task
Manager. The site
database administrator requires that any changes made which affect the amount and type of
data being
stored to the database must be reviewed and approved prior to implementation. Which of the
following log
settings would impact the data stored to the database?
A. Audit logging
B. Failed event logging
C. Task history logging
D. Common Event Infrastructure (CEI) logging
Answer: A

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NO.8 A deployment professional is installing an application which uses business processes
in a clustered
WebSphere Process Server environment. The Business Process Choreographer (BPC)
container has
previously been configured. During which phase of the installation is the application
validated?
A. During the installation phase on the node agent.
B. During the installation phase on the deployment manager.
C. During the configuration phase on the application server.
D. During the application start phase on the application server.
Answer: B

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NO.1 The user ID of the owner of the database instance to which you want to install the databases must
have privileges to create which of the following?
A.indexes, users, and groups
B.tables, users, and profiles
C.database, tablespace, and tables
D.profiles, databases, and connections
Answer: C

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NO.2 Before creating the Lotus Connections feature databases, the DB2 installation must be registered by
utilizing which of the following?
A.db2reg.lcp
B.db2ese_o.lic
C.db2_init.exe
D.db2license.txt
Answer: B

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NO.3 You can group WebSphere Application Server processes so that you can administer them as a unit.
WebSphere Application Server refers to such a group as which of the following?
A.Units
B.Teams
C.Profile
D.Processors
Answer: C

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NO.4 In the single profile with one server process configuration, the WebSphere Application Server
Integrated Solutions Console is available on which of the following default server processes?
A.Aserver
B.server
C.serverA
D.server1
Answer: D

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NO.5 Before you begin the process of uninstalling a stand-alone Lotus Connections environment, there is a
preferences file that will be is useful if you reinstall Lotus Connections at a later time. Which of the
following files should you consider retaining?
A.wimcfg.xml
B.ResponseInstaller.txt
C.LotusConnections-config.xml
D.lastSessionDefaults.properties
Answer: D

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NO.6 To establish a global unique ID for the LDAP directory, you must modify which of the following files?
A.wimconfig.xml
B.wasLDAP.properties
C.LotusConnectionsprefs.xml
D.LDAPrepositories.properties
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following LDAP attributes are required for all users when configuring it for use with
WebSphere Application Server?
A.cn
B.uid
C.mail
D.shortname
Answer: C

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NO.8 For each user in LDAP, Tivoli Directory Integrator will map each LDAP attribute or JavaScript function
to the corresponding column in the database. The wizard automatically validates each mapping. Which of
the following does the wizard create in the database for each user?
A.Row
B.Table
C.Column
D.Section
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which steps correctly assign a group to a role when logged into the IBM Tivoli Storage
Productivity Center V5.1 (TSPC) stand-alone GUI as a user with TSPC superuser privileges?
A. use the Data Manager > Role-to-Group Mappings screen,assign the newly created or existing
OS/LDAP user group to selected TSPC roles,and click on the Save button
B. use the Job Management > Role-to-Group Mappings screen,assign the newly created or
existing OS/LDAP user group to selected TSPC roles,and click on the Save button
C. use the Configuration Utility > Role-to-Group Mappings screen,assign the newly created or
existing OS/LDAP user group to selected TSPCroles,and click on the Save button
D. use the Administrative Services > Configuration > Role-to-Group Mappings screen,assign the
newly created or existing OS/LDAP user groupto selected TSPC roles,and click on the Save
button
Answer: D

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NO.2 How can a user add two Storage Resource agents of different operating systems in a single job
in
the Create Storage Resource Agent Deployment window?
A. add credentials for one system,click Add,and click Add Host List to enter the second system
B. add credentials for one system,click Add,and click Add Agent List to enter the second system
C. add credentials for one system,click Add,and click Add Another Agent to enter the second
system
D. add credentials for one system,click Add,and click Add Storage Resource Agent to enter the
second system
Answer: A

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NO.3 In IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1 stand-alone GUI, where can the status of a
performance monitoring job be checked on a switch that is still in progress?
A. In Fabric Manager > Switch Performance > Jobs panel,under Schedules section,select the
Performance Monitoring job,and then View LogFiles under Jobs for Selected Schedule section.
B. In Fabric Manager > Monitoring > Job Management panel,under Schedules section,select the
Performance Monitoring job,and then View LogFiles under Jobs for Selected Schedule section.
C. In IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center > Job Management panel,under Schedules
section,select the Performance Monitoring job,and then
View Log Files under Jobs for Selected Schedule section.
D. In IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center > Monitoring > Job Management panel,under
Schedules section,select the Performance Monitoringjob,then View Log Files under Jobs for
Selected Schedule section.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer needs to run a Discovery job for their VMWare environment. Where in the
stand-alone
GUI for IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1 would they need to navigate to create that
job?
A. Administrative Services > Discovery > VMWare
B. Data Manager > Discovery > VMWare VI Data Source
C. Administrative Services > VMWare VI Data Source > Discovery
D. Administrative Services > Discovery > VMWare VI Data Source
Answer: D

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NO.5 What action would an IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1 administrator take to create
a
new report using Cognos?
A. open the V5.1 Web-based GUI and select Reporting > Create a Basic Report
B. open the V5.1 Web-based GUI and select Reporting > Create a Cognos Report
C. open the V5.1 Web-based GUI and expand IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center > Reporting
> Create a Report
D. open the V5.1 Web-based GUI and expand IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center > Reporting
> Cognos Reporting
Answer: A

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NO.6 In IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1, what are two options presented in the
Repocopy
tool for IBM DB2 Export when exporting data from repository tables? (Choose two.)
A. Export Using Text Files
B. Export Using DB2 Text Files
C. Export Using DB2 Native Format
D. Export Using Comma-separated Excel Sheet
E. Export Using Text Files Containing Comma-separated Values
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Which role can perform Fabric Manager functions and has limited access to other nodes?
A. Fabric Operator
B. SAN Administrator
C. Fabric Administrator
D. Productivity Center Administrator
Answer: C

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NO.8 IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1 can communicate with which component over
IPv6?
A. SRA Agents
B. Java Web Start
C. Rollup Reporting
D. SLP Directory Agents
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following is the best method for requesting data from an SQL database? (Choose One)
A. SQL connector
B. SQL listener
C. Service package
D. External database table class mapping
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following tools are most commonly used to evaluate performance during development of
a PRPC application? (Choose Three)
A. Preflight
B. PAL
C. Rules Inspector
D. My Alerts
E. Clipboard
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 Once you create a simu-lation for a connector, the simu-lation remains in effect
__________________________. (Choose One)
A. until disabled by using the Connector Simulation tool
B. until the simulation activity is deleted
C. permanently on the system; it can never be disabled
D. until the first call to the connector is completed
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the transition in an Activity used for? (Choose One)
A. To repeat a step several times, or until a condition is met
B. To change the harness display
C. To jump to a previous step in the Activity
D. To specify conditional processing which is evaluated after the method in the step is executed
Answer: D

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NO.5 The Connector and Metadata Accelerator can simplify the creation of a connector by
________________________ to create the necessary rules. (Choose Two)
A. parsing a WSDL
B. parsing a provided Java source file
C. introspecting class metadata
D. creating an SQL query
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 A PRPC component that defines and implements an interface between an external application acting as
a client and a Process Commander system acting as a server is called a ______________________?
(Choose One)
A. Connector
B. Activity
C. Service
D. Assignment
Answer: C

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NO.7 Service Level rules include which of the following time intervals? (Choose Two)
A. Milestone
B. Requirement
C. Goal
D. Deadline
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 Which two statements are true about Activity step pages? (Choose Two)
A. The step page always corresponds to the class named in the Applies To key part of the Activity
B. Step pages are automatically removed when an Activity ends
C. The step page sets the default page context for the duration of the step's execution
D. Named step pages are not required for each step of an Activity
Answer: C,D

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NO.1 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test
specialist. Which
of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to
be achieved
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned
scenario? 2
credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.4 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on
reporting back on their
status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

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NO.5 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for
the project
manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be
used to report
to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area,
testing needs to be
rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify
THREE measures
that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always
applicable in
other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to
provide evidence
of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an
influencing
factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

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NO.8 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to
measure the
effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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Exam Code: MSC-331
Exam Name: Designing and Deploying Mobile Computing Solutions
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Exam Code: MSC-111
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Exam Code: MSC-121
Exam Name: Design WLan Solutions
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NO.1 The IEEE 802.lln amendment to the standard addresses several PHY layer enhancements. One of
these enhancements is "Channel Bonding" allowing for 40 MHz wide channels. Without taking any
specific local regulatory domain into consideration, what is the maximum number of non-overlapping 40
MHz wide channels that can exist in the 2.4 GHz ISM band.?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
E. 11
F. 20
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following terms refers to the strength of an emitted RF signal measured at its strongest
point?
A. EIRP (Equivalent Isotropic Radiated Power)
B. 1FZ (First Fresnel Zone)
C. Azimuth
D. dBi
E. IR (Intentional Radiator)
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following must occur prior to a WLAN client device being assigned a TCP/IP address
through DHCP?
A. Successful 802.11 roaming
B. Successful 802.11 association
C. Successful 802.11 authentication
D. Successful 802.11 probe response
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is CORRECT concerning the IEEE 802.11 Open Authentication
procedure?
A. Uses four way frame exchange
B. Is optional before additional authentication
C. May occur after the association
D. Must occur before additional authentication
Answer: D

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NO.5 Network Layer TCP/IP packets that are prepared to be sent across the 802.11 wireless medium are
commonly known as which of the following?
A. MAC service data unit
B. MAC protocol data unit
C. LLC sub-layer data unit
D. MAC service switch unit
E. PHY layer service data unit
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are assigned the task of evaluating a wireless network. While using a layer 2 wireless LAN
analysis capture tool you notice support of a minimum rate of 6 Mbps. What IEEE 802.11 standard or
amendment to the standard operating in the U-NII band is in use on the company's WLAN (select TWO)?
A. 802.11
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11n
D. 802.11g
E. 802.11a
Answer: C,E

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NO.7 Which of the following duplexing methods is used by the radios in Motorola's WLAN products?
A. Half-duplex
B. Full-duplex
C. Simplex
D. Half-duplex Tx / Full-duplex Rx
E. Full-duplex Tx / Ha If-duplex Rx
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following situations would force a wireless client to renew its IP address?
A. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to the same VLAN
B. Roaming between controllers supporting the same VLANs
C. Roaming between two BSSIDs assigned to different VLANs
D. All of the above would force a client to renew its IP address
Answer: C

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NO.1 In the frame decode shown, there are two sets of supported data rates. 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps are all
shown as "basic" data rates, and 6, 9, 12, 18, 24, 36, 48, and 54 Mbps are shown simply as supported
data rates.
What is true of "basic" data rates in this context?
A. The AP requires all client stations to support Basic rates in order to associate to its BSS.
B. The highest data rate set to Basic is automatically used to send broadcast traffic such as Beacon
frames.
C. Basic rates are optional data rates for the BSS, often used for assuring connectivity for legacy stations.
D. Basic rates are only used for multicast traffic, and do not affect unicast traffic.
E. Basic rates are defined in an AP's service set to specify mandatory data rates for all retry frames.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statement is true regarding the Association Identifier (AID) used in IEEE 802.11 WLANs?
A. The AID has a maximum value of 2048, and is used to uniquely identify a wireless client station
associated with an access point.
B. The AID has a maximum value of 2007, and resides in the duration/ID field of a PS-Poll frame.
C. The client station is assigned an AID value in the 802.11 authentication response frame.
D. The AID field is present only in Beacons frames.
E. The AID is used by the access point in EDCA mode to reduce duplicate transmissions when sending
multicasts.
Answer: B

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NO.3 When a 5 GHz HT station in a 40 MHz BSS desires to protect a 40 MHz transmission from an OFDM
station using an RTS/CTS or CTS-to-Self exchange, what frame format is used for the RTS and/or CTS
frames?
A. HT-mixed format
B. HT-greenfield format
C. Dual-CTS
D. Non-HT Duplicate
E. Phased Coexistence PPDU
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statements are true regarding Beacons from an AP in an HT infrastructure BSS that is configured
with multiple WLAN profiles? (Choose 3)
A. Beacons can be disabled for security purposes.
B. The BSSID and Source Address are always the same.
C. The Destination Address is always FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF.
D. The Receiver address and the BSSID are always the same.
E. When the SSID is "hidden," the ESS subfield of the Capability Information field distinguishes one BSS
from another.
F. All Beacons generated by APs contain a TIM information element.
G. The Beacon interval must be the same for all WLANs (SSIDs) supported by a single AP
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.5 According to 802.11-2007, in what frame type(s) might you find the PMK Count and PMKID List fields?
A. All frames that include the RSN IE
B. Only (Re)Association Request frames
C. Beacon and Probe Response frames
D. EAPoL 4-Way Handshake frames
E. Authentication and Association Request and Response frames
Answer: B

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NO.6 What HT PPDU format is shown in the exhibit?
A. HT-mixed format
B. HT-greenfield format
C. Non-HT format
D. Non-HT duplicate format
E. Dual Training Field format
F. ERP-OFDM format
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the purpose of a PHY preamble.?
A. It provides the receiver(s) with an opportunity for RF channel synchronization prior to the start of the
PLCP header.
B. It communicates important information about the PSDU's length, rate, and upper layer protocol-related
parameters.
C. It provides a cyclic redundancy check (CRC) for the receiving station to validate that the PLCP header
was received correctly.
D. It indicates to the PHY the modulation that shall be used for transmission (and reception) of the PSDU.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What IEEE 802.11 technology is illustrated by the exhibit?
A. Fragmentation
B. TCP Fragment Bursting
C. A-MSDU
D. A-MPDU E. U-APSD
F. Jumbo frames
Answer: C

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Exam Code: GSSP-NET-CSHARP
Exam Name: GIAC Secure Software Programmer - C#.NET
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NO.1 You work as a Software Developer for Mansoft Inc. You create an application and use it to create code
access security policies. Which of the following tools will you use to examine and modify code access
security policies from a batch file?
A. Tlbimp.exe
B. GacUtil.exe
C. Sn.exe
D. Caspol.exe
E. StoreAdm.exe
Answer: D

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NO.2 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company has several branches worldwide. The
company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its application development platform. You are creating an
application using .NET Framework 2.0. The application will be used by all the branches of the company.
You are using the CompareInfo class for culture-sensitive string comparisons. You write the following
code in the application:
String s1 = "C rtify";
String s2 = "c rtify";
String s3 = "c rtify";
You need to compare the s1 string with the s2 string and ensure that the string comparison must ignore
case. Which of the following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.IgnoreCase));
B. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.None));
C. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.Ordinal));
D. CompareInfo cmp = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture.CompareInfo; Console.WriteLine(cmp.Compare(s1,
s2, CompareOptions.OrdinalIgnoreCase));
Answer: A

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NO.3 In .NET Framework 3.5, you can create and access values that persist from one application session to
another. What are these values called?
A. Objects
B. Settings
C. Properties
D. Attributes
Answer: B

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NO.4 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET as its application
development platform. You create a class library using the .NET Framework. The library will be used to
open the NSCs of computers. Later, you will set up the class library to the GAC and provide it Full Trust
permission. You write down the following code segments for the socket connections:
SocketPermission permission = new SocketPermission(PermissionState.Unrestricted);
permission.Assert();
A number of the applications that use the class library may not have the necessary permissions to open
the network socket connections. Therefore, you are required to withdraw the assertion. Which of the
following code segments will you use to accomplish the task?
A. permission.PermitOnly();
B. CodeAccessPermission.RevertDeny();
C. permission.Deny();
D. CodeAccessPermission.RevertAssert();
E. permission.Demand();
Answer: D

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NO.5 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2005 as its
application development platform. You have recently finished development of a Windows application
using .NET Framework. Users report that the application is not running properly. When the users try to
complete a particular action, the following error message comes out:
Unable to find assembly 'myservices, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral,
PublicKeyToken=29b5ad26c9de9b95'.
You notice that the error occurs as soon as the application tries to call functionality in a serviced
component that was registered by using the following command:
regsvcs.exe myservices.dll
You must make sure that the application can call the functionality in the serviced component with no
exceptions being thrown. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Run the command line tool: regasm.exe myservices.dll.
B. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\Program Files\ComPlus Applications fold er.
C. Run the command line tool: gacutil.exe /i myservices.dll.
D. Copy the serviced component assembly into the C:\WINDOWS\system32\Com folder.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You have recently finished development of an ASP.NET Web
application using the .NET Framework 3.5. You host the application on a Web farm that consists of three
Web servers. You should configure the ASP.NET application for session state to meet the following
requirements:
l Session state data should not be lost if a server fails.
l Session state must be maintained across browser requests by the same user.
You are required to configure the Web.config file to meet these requirements. Which of the following
configurations will you use?
A. <sessionState mode="StateServer"/>
B. <sessionState mode="InProc"/>
C. <sessionState mode="Custom"/>
D. <sessionState mode="SQLServer"/>
Answer: D

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NO.7 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio.NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using the .NET
Framework 3.5. You want to use a HTTP module called on each and every request made by the
application. It is called as part of the ASP.NET request pipeline. It has right to access life-cycle events
throughout the request. You also want to ensure that the HTTP module allows a user to inspect incoming
and outgoing requests and take appropriate action based on the request. What will be the correct order to
create the HTTP module?
A.
Answer: A

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NO.8 You work as a Software Developer for ABC Inc. The company uses Visual Studio .NET 2008 as its
application development platform. You create an ASP.NET Web application using .NET Framework 3.5.
You create a Web form in the application that permits users to provide personal information. You add a
DropDownList control to the Web form to retrieve the residential status of users. The default item that the
DropDownList control displays is the "Select Country" option. You have to ensure that users select a
country other than the default option. Which of the following validation controls should you use to
accomplish this task?
A. RangeValidator
B. RequiredFieldValidator
C. CustomValidator
D. RegularExpressionValidator
Answer: B

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