2013年6月29日星期六

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Exam Code: HP2-K27

Exam Name: HP (Supporting and Servicing HP P6000 EVA Solutions)

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NO.1 In an EVA, what is purpose of virtual disk leveling.?
A. Dynamically distribute data blocks over many physical spindles to eliminate performance bottlenecks.
B. Equalize disk capacity.
C. Allocate space per disk group to recover from physical disk group member failure.
D. Build virtual disks from physical disks.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the approximate maximum virtual disk size for a disk group with 10 36GB drives and a disk
protection level of Single?
A. 134 GB
B. 202 GB
C. 270 GB
D. 338 GB
Answer: C

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NO.3 What failover mode does the EVA currently use?
A. Active
B. Passive
C. Active-Passive
D. Transparent
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-B85

Exam Name: HP (HP Imaging and Printing Sales Fundamentals Exam )

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NO.1 What is the best way to do a realistic performance comparison of two competitive printers?
A. performing side-by-side comparisons of data sheets
B. warming up the printers prior to testing
C. giving each vendor the same document to print offsite
D. testing both printers in the customer's working environment
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which HP technology contributes to the HP value proposition of "simplicity"?
A. HP FastRes 1200
B. HP Universal Print Driver
C. HP Instant-on Fuser
D. HP Output Server
Answer: B

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NO.3 Why does HP continue to lead the imaging and printing industry? (Select two.)
A. product reliability
B. less expensive products/services
C. marketing expertise
D. more printing formats
E. broadest product portfolio
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 Which phrase describes real-world performance?
A. the ability of a printer to collate and staple without jamming
B. the total cost of ownership, including memory and accessories
C. the total printing process, from clicking Print, to a finished page in the output bin
D. the movement of a print job through the network
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are the advantages that resellers get by selling HP devices? (Select two.)
A. lowest hardware prices in the industry
B. just-in-time shipping of products
C. free toner with every sold printer
D. brand recognition that opens doors for more sales
E. access to a large installed base of existing customers
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 What is the key driver in a transactional type of sale?
A. the customer
B. long-term planning
C. perceived customer benefits
D. the product
Answer: A

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NO.7 What does an HP Color LaserJet provide that makes the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) lower than that
of competitors?
A. the cheapest base price
B. consumables' refilling capabilities
C. fewer replacement parts and long-life consumables
D. standard finishing capabilities
Answer: C

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NO.8 How many customers and printers are in the HP imaging and printing worldwide installed base?
A. 30 million customers, 200 million printers
B. 100 million customers, 400 million printers
C. 400 million customers, 1 billion printers
D. 200 million customers, 600 million printers
Answer: B

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NO.9 How do HP Edgeline technology printheads work in Edgeline MFPs?
A. They remain stationary.
B. They move with the paper.
C. They work with PhotoREt III.
D. They consume less toner.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which feature improves real-world performance on HP Color LaserJets and color MFPs?
A. intelligent color calibration
B. shorter paper path
C. flexible paper handling
D. total print management
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is a key reason that HP monochrome LaserJet print quality is better than that of competitive
products?
A. HP ColorSphere toner
B. higher fuser temperatures
C. smoothest gray ramp
D. HP Scalable Print technology
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the name of the HP high quality and performance ink?
A. HP Viverata
B. HP Vivera
C. HP ImageREt
D. HP PhotoREt
Answer: B

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NO.13 What are the core HP value propositions for imaging and printing products?
A. affordability, reliability, quality, simplicity
B. complete product portfolio, superior output, reliability
C. affordability, quality, complete product portfolio
D. reliability, simplicity, real-world performance, superior output
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which HP technology is designed to simplify printer driver management?
A. HP Instant Support
B. HP Universal Print Driver
C. HP Easy Printer Care
D. HP Color Access Control
Answer: B

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NO.15 At what percentage does the use of color in printed communication increase readership?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-B91

Exam Name: HP (Imaging and Printing Supplies - Sale )

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NO.1 What is part of the HP system message?
A. HP UX, All-in-One cartridges, HP FutureSmart
B. photopaper, digital cameras, aftermarket
C. supplies, hardware, media
D. laptops, touchpads, servers, printers
Answer: C

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NO.2 What defines the total HP supplies sales?
A. average printer age, number of users, yield per cartridge
B. hardware market share, number of users, supplies market share
C. HP installed base, usage, HP supplies market share
D. market size, usage, aftermarket
Answer: A

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NO.3 In which type of hardware does the majority of the current total supplies sell-out occur?
A. most current workgroup printers from this year's line-up
B. most current MFPs from this year s line-up
C. older devices than the current line-up
D. most current retail inkjet devices from this year s line-up
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are primary factors in the explosion of digital content.? (Select two.)
A. faster print speeds
B. analog to digital content
C. better print quality
D. mobility and the internet
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Which statement is correct about product life cycle of supplies?
A. It is shorter than the printer's product lifecycle.
B. It is the same as the printer's product lifecycle.
C. It is significantly longer than the printer's product lifecycle.
D. It is linked to the page coverage
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-E52

Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Cloudsystem and Converged Infrastructure Solutions Delta Exam)

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NO.1 Which HP solution allows customers to deploy turnkey private and public clouds with full cloud service
automation?
A. HPAppSystem
B. HP CloudSystem Enterprise
C. HP BladeSystem
D. HPVirtualSystem
Answer: B

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NO.2 Why would a customer need cloud-bursting options?
A. to enable them to automatically access additional services when private resources have been fully
used
B. to meet big data demands and maximize data reliability and security
C. to allow additional users to access a particular service
D. to ensure resources can be effectively used and reallocated without human intervention
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is a drawback of having a high number of legacy applications in rigid siloes on separate
infrastructure islands?
A. It is difficult for IT to perform system maintenance task with business users.
B. It is difficult for IT to maintain service level agreements and keep up with the speed of business.
C. It is difficult for IT to provide accurate assessments of the server and storage requirements and
manage software updates.
D. It is difficult for IT to predict resource requirements on a three-year rolling plan.
Answer: C

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NO.4 HP CloudSystem Enterprise lets your customers substantially increase organizational agility, enabling
them to rapidly respond to changing demands. What is one of the key benefits of this?
A. They are able to increase storage utilization and reduce the overall administration burden.
B. They reduce the amount of network bandwidth needed to deploy new services.
C. They gain the ability to virtualize existing environments and increase operations and administration
efficiency.
D. They gain the ability to scale and flex capacity in seconds, not hours, days or weeks.
Answer: C

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NO.5 According to a research study conducted by IDC, it takes IT organizations more than 20 days to deploy
a new application in a traditional environment. How long does deploying a converged infrastructure
solution take?
A. less than 5 days
B. less than6days
C. less than 15 days
D. less than 20 days
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-Y43

Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Network Infrastructure Solutions Exam)

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NO.1 View the exhibit.
A network administrator wants to configure an HP 5800 switch to place all incoming traffic on the
GigabitEthernet 1/0/1 port in priority queue 3. However, one exception applies. All traffic incoming on that
port that is destined to UDP port 55555 should be forwarded in priority queue 4 and marked with DSCP
32.
Based on the current configurations shown in the exhibit, which further steps must the network
administrator perform? (Select two.)
A. Configure port GigabitEthernet 1>0/1 to trust DSCP
B. Apply QoS policy Policy1 as on inbound policyon port GigabitEthernet 1/0/l
C. Apply QoS policy Policy2 as on inbound policyon port GigabitEthernet 1/0/1
D. Create a OoS Ip-dscp mapthat maps Ip value 4 to DSCP02
E. Undo OoS trust on port GigabitEthernet 1/0/1
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 How can a high density of ports and high throughput at the core of an HP FlexNetwork save customers
money?
A. Intelligence is offloaded from the edge switches, enabling customers to save money on the most
numerous switches in their solutions.
B. The customer can combine the data center and campus LAN core into a single entity, reducing power
and cooling costs.
C. The customer no longer needs to deploy modular switches at the distribution level and the edge,
deploying more cost-effective stackable switches instead.
D. The architecture can be simplified, eliminating expensive distribution devices and reducing power and
cooling costs.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which switch is best suited to act at the edge of a medium to large HP FlexFabric solution?
A. 10500
B. 5500
C. 9500
D. 5830
Answer: D

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NO.4 A network includes a mix of IGMPv2 and IGMPv3 endpoints and must support the following source
specific multicasting applications:
-Source: 10.1.4.2 and Group: 232.0.5.5
-Source: 10.1.4.12 and Group 232.0.6.6
The network is already implementing PIM-SM and IGMPv3. In order to support these applications, the HP
10500 switches that act as routers for the endpoints in question must support another feature. Which step
must the network administrator perform on each of these switches?
A. Create an SSM policy that includes 232.0.5.5 and 232.0.6.6 within its range
B. Enable IGMPv2 backward compatibility mode
C. Configure two SSM maps, each of which mapsa source to its multicast group
D. Enable PIM SSM on the interfaces that connect to the endpoints
Answer: C

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NO.5 View the exhibit.
The exhibit shows a network with HP 5400 zl and 8200 zl switches throughout the core and edge. What is
one advantage of implementing routing on edge switches?
A. Typically, it is easier to implement user-based VLAN assignments.
B. The topology has higher redundancy because edge switches can take over routing roles when
necessary.
C. Typically, the network can use fewer total VLANs when edge switches implement routing.
D. Typically, it is easier to ensure that routed links between edge and core switches are fully utilized.
Answer: D

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NO.6 View the exhibits.
Exhibit 1
The frame has these characteristics:
-VLANID = 3
-802.1p = 3
-DSCP=32
-Source IP address = 10.1.1.5
Click here for Exhibit 2
The frame shown in Exhibit 1 arrives on an HP 5800 switch's GigabitEthernet port 1/0/1. QoS maps are at
their default settings. Based on the configuration shown in Exhibit 2, to which queue is the outbound
packet assigned?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the role of neighbor solicitation (NS) messages in the autoconfiguration of an IPv6 address.?
A. An IPv6 node sends an NS message to inform a node undergoing autoconfiguration that it is already
using a particular address.
B. An IPv6 node sends an NS message for its tentative address to determine whether another node is
using it.
C. An IPv6 node sends an NS message for the global prefix to prompt other IPv6 nodes to advertise the
addresses that they are using on that prefix.
D. An IPv6 node sends an NS message to prompt an IPv6 router on the link to advertise the global
prefixes associated with the link immediately.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A company has a service level agreement (SLA) with its service provider. The SLA specifies a 2 Mbps
committed information rate (CIR) and 20 KB committed burst size (CBS). Lately, during peak usage times,
the company has been experiencing brief periods of poor performance on its external connection
(GigabitEthernet port 2/0/1 on an HP 5800 switch).
How can the network administrator configure the Comware switch to address this problem?
A. Configure a traffic classifier that selects all traffic and a car traffic behavior that sets the CIR to 2 Mbps
and the CBS to 20 KB. Create a QoS policy that maps the classifier to the action and apply this policy as
an inbound policy on port GigabitEthernet 2/0/1.
B. Enable Strict Priority (SP) scheduling on port GigabitEthernet 2/0/1 and ensure that all inbound traffic is
marked with the correct priority.
C. Configure generic traffic shaping (GTS) on the GigabitEthernet port 2/0/1, setting the CIR to 2 Mbps
and the CBS to 20 KB.
D. Configure a traffic classifier that selects all traffic and a car traffic behavior that sets the CIR to 2 Mbps
and the CBS to 20 KB. Create a OoS policy that maps the classifier to the action and apply this policy as
an outbound policy on port GigabitEthernet 2/0/1.
Answer: C

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NO.9 A company has a network that includes HP 5800 and 12500 switches. Usage demands on the
company's FTP servers have increased, causing performance issues during peak usage times. While
analyzing link utilization, the network administrator noticed that the most heavily utilized links experience
bursts of congestion, causing them to drop traffic. The links then experience brief periods of low utilization
followed by another burst of congestion. This pattern continues periodically throughout the peak utilization
time.
What should the network administrator do to attempt to create a more efficient traffic pattern on these
links?
A. Configure an outbound traffic policing policy on the ports in question, setting the CIR at about sixty
percent of the ports' capacity and the PIR at about eighty percent.
B. Apply Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ) or Weighted Round Robin (WRR) scheduling in preference to
Strict Priority (SP) scheduling on the ports in question.
C. Configure inbound traffic policing policies on ports at the core, setting the CIR at about sixty percent of
the ports' capacity and the PIR at about eighty percent. Apply outbound generic traffic shaping (GTS) on
ports facing the core ports, setting the CIR equal to the CIR on the core ports.
D. Apply a WRED table to the ports in question, optionally adjusting the table values to drop lower priority
traffic first.
Answer: D

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NO.10 A customer requires an HP FlexCampus solution with a core that scales to 40/100G. Which HP switch
fabric meets this need?
A. the 7500's CLOS switch fabric
B. the 10500's CLOS switch fabric
C. the 7500's crossbar switch fabric
D. the 10500's crossbar switch fabric
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-T26

Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP BladeSystem Solutions)

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NO.1 Your customer has a business critical HP BladeSystem enclosure and wants to protect it with
additional service coverage. The company's requirements are 24x7 and functionality must be restored
within a defined time.
Which HP Service offering is needed to fulfill the customer's requirements?
A. HP Critical Advantage L3
B. HP Proactive Select 30 Credit
C. HP 6 hour Hardware Support Onsite Call-to-Repair Service
D. HP 24x7 hour Response, Hardware Support Onsite Service
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which feature should you enable in RBSU in a G7 server to reduce processor power usage and
improve overall performance in some applications?
A. Intel Hyperthreading Options
B. HP Dynamic Power Savings Mode
C. Processor Core Disable
D. HP Static Low Power Mode
E. OS Control Mode
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which tool can be used to verify that SNMP events appear in HP SIM from a blade server running
Windows 2008?
A. Onboard Administrator
B. System Management Homepage
C. HP SNMP Agent
D. Integrated Lights-Out
Answer: C

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NO.4 A user added a second OA to a c7000 enclosure so the OAs are redundant, however, the modules are
not at the same firmware level. What is an easy way to bring them to the same firmware version?
A. Use HP SUM to update each OA individually.
B. Request that the Admin have SIM push the updates to the each OA.
C. Use HP SUM Offline to update the standby OA, restart it, and repeat the procedure on the remaining
OA.
D. Select the Synchronize Firmware button in either OA.
Answer: D

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NO.5 How should you save a Virtual Connect configuration?
A. from CLI: show all > cfg.txt
B. enclosure setting, configuration scripts, inventory
C. enclosure setting, configuration scripts, show config, save
D. domain setting, backup/restore
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is a DDR3 Memory population rule to follow for Gen8 servers?
A. If only one processor is installed in a two processor system, only half of the DIMM slots are available.
B. DIMMs of different voltages cannot be mixed in the same bank.
C. DIMMs of different speed grades can be mixed.
D. UDIMMs, RDIMMs, or LRDIMMs can be mixed.
Answer: A

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NO.7 HP standard warranties support the HP hardware. What are HP Care Packs designed to support?
A. Software
B. Network
C. Storage
D. Business
Answer: A

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NO.8 Why is it considered a best practice to use tools such as HP Smart Update Manager (SUM) and Virtual
Connect Support Utility (VCSU) to deploy firmware components?
A. These tools check the dependencies and limitations.
B. The tools are compatible with all versions of firmware.
C. These are the only tools that can be used to work with Virtual Connect Enterprise Utility (VCEU).
D. These tools are version compatible by design.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which command should you use to connect to the CLI interface of an HP ProCurve Blade Switch
through the Onboard Administrator?
A. connect interconnect <bay_number>
B. connect switch <bay_number>
C. connect <bay_number>
D. connect server <bay_number>
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the advantage of Solid State Drive over I/O Accelerator?
A. It offers higher reliability.
B. It is bootable.
C. It has a longer life span.
D. It has higher throughput.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which iLO3 MP logs should be looked at to check the hardware status of an HP Integrity BL870c i2
Server Blade? (Select two.)
A. Syslog log
B. System Event log
C. Forward Progress log
D. Machine Check log
E. Resource Monitor log
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 What is used to update firmware on several HP VC Ethernet or Fibre Channel modules
simultaneously?
A. VCM
B. HP FDT
C. VCSU
D. OA
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which benefit is provided by having identical Interconnect modules in adjacent bays of the c7000
enclosure?
A. reduced power requirements
B. dynamicIObandwidth
C. improved uplink failure detection
D. redundant IOcapabilities
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which Windows commands allow you to get the operating system's version, build, and service patch
level? (Select two.)
A. winver
B. msconfig
C. patch
D. msinfo32
E. swlist
F. uname
Answer: B,D

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NO.15 What should a support engineer use to perform a firmware update to a c-Class PCI Expansion Blade?
A. OA CLI
B. HP SmartStart
C. Firmware Maintenance DVD
D. OA GUI
Answer: A

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NO.16 You want to add memory to an existing BL890c i2 server. The new DIMMs have a different size than the
installed ones. Which memory upgrade guideline is correct?
A. Distribute old and new memory evenly on all blade modules, installing the larger ones first.
B. Blade modules 1 and 2 must have one DIMM size, and blade modules 3 and 4 must have the other
DIMM size.
C. Blade modules 1 and 3 must have one DIMM size, and blade modules 2 and 4 must have the other
DIMM size.
D. Distribute old and new memory evenly on all blade modules, installing the smaller ones first.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Your Virtual Connect firmware is older than 1.34. What is the recommended upgrade order for the
components in a c7000 enclosure.?
A. Onboard Administrators, Blades, Virtual Connect
B. Virtual Connect, Blades, Onboard Administrators
C. Virtual Connect, Onboard Administrators, Blades
D. Blades, Virtual Connect, Onboard Administrators
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which Windows command allows you to see the operating system version and system name,
manufacturer, and model?
A. msconfig
B. uname
C. msinfo32
D. winver
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which memory configuration types are supported in the Gen8 ProLiant Blade servers? (Select two.)
A. DDR2
B. SODIMM
C. SDIMM
D. RDIMM
E. UDIMM
Answer: D,E

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NO.20 Which tool can be used to upgrade the firmware of Virtual Connect Ethernet module? (Select two.)
A. HP SUM
B. OA
C. VCSU
D. VCEM
E. HP SIM
Answer: C,E

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Exam Code: HP0-D17

Exam Name: HP (Architecting HP Cloud Solutions)

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NO.1 A rental and leasing company is in the IT engineering and rental business, specializing in
testing
and measurement products. As the company has expanded, so too has its IT procurement, with
the resulting infrastructure being both complex and wasteful. It is difficult to introduce new
applications, and IT is failing to effectively support the continued business growth. The current
AS/ 400 solution is getting old and very costly to maintain.
A decision has been made to overhaul the company’s IT infrastructure. As stated by the CIO, “we
want a system which contributes to operational efficiency”.
For the rental business, one of the company’s core divisions, improving value add has become a
major requirement. One identified value adds timeliness.
What would be the recommended solution to address the CIO concerns and improve the
timeliness value add?
A. Implement an HP CloudSystem Enterprise solution with AS/ 400 as aback and solution.
B. Implement an HP CloudSystem Matrix while maintaining the AS/ 400 systems for bursting.
C. Perform stack analysis, migrate AS/ 400 to Linux, and implement a VirtualSystem.
D. Perform stack analysis, migrate AS/ 400 to Linux, and implement an HP CloudSystem Matrix.
Answer: C

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5. A customer has compared a concern about their large and rigid SAP development and test
environment. They would like to provision and decommission in-houses SAP instances with
associated applications, databases, and configurations.
What is recommended to achieve the desired provisioning and decommissioning?
A. Implement HP CloudSystem Matrix solution with CSA and integrate SAP .
B. Implement HP CloudSystem Matrix solution and integrate SAP .
C. Implement HP Cloud Services solution, which offers SAP .
D. Implement HP VirtualSystem (VS3) and deploy SAP on top of it.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer needs to provision different applications on the same operating system for virtual
machines in their Cloud environment. Which application can be used to create policies for
application deployment that can be easily exchanged?
A. HP Matrix OE VMM templates
B. HP Server Automation
C. VMware templates
D. HP Insight Control server deployment
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are in the design phase of a new solution for a customer call center environment. Part of
the
requirement is that the Help-Desk agents be able to log on from every desk but still receive access
to their personal OS instance. Which fulfills this requirement?
A. HP VirtualSystem CV1
B. HP CloudSystem Enterprise
C. HP AppSystem
D. HP CloudSystem Matrix
Answer: B

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NO.4 What does HP eConfigure Solutions generate?
A. CPU requirements
B. A Cloud Map for new cloud solutions
C. A complete Bill of Material (BOM)
D. Server memory requirements
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-D20

Exam Name: HP (Architecting the HP Matrix Operating Environment)

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NO.1 Name two ways to achieve a converged infrastructure. (Select two)
A. Outsource IT resources to focus on operations
B. Standardize, virtualize, and automate
C. Buy as CloudSystem or VirtualSystem
D. Access virtual resources through a self-service portal
E. Migrate, consolidate, and configure
F. Buy configure-to-order (CTO) components
Answer: BE

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NO.2 Which technology reduces power consumption by automatically adjusting energy use on
actual traffic
among network devices in real-time?
A. 3D Sea Sensors
B. Thermal Logic
C. Energy Efficient Ethernet
D. Dynamic Power Capping
Answer: C

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NO.3 What does a building a converged infrastructure enable an enterprise to do?
A. Shift resources from operations to innovation
B. Manage data growth and complexity with minimal cost
C. Focus IT on operations
D. Customize server settings and add-ons
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is BladeSystem environment with virtual Connect Ethernet and Fibre Channel modules?
A. Virtual Connect Fibre Channel
B. Virtual Connect domain
C. Virtual Connect network
D. VCEM Repository
Answer: A

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NO.5 How does HP defines a balanced virtual machine system architecture?
A. Industry recommended best practice combination of 3.5 GB of memory and 400MG of I/O per
virtual
machine
B. A redundant combination of extended memory, I/O, storage, and virtual machines in each
enclosure
C. The combination of computer power, I/O and storage that yields the best return on investment
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which technology enables you to know how much time it takes for data to travel back and
forth across an
Ethernet network?
A. Energy Efficient Ethernet
B. Simple Network Time Protocol
C. Network Time Protocol
D. Precession Time Control
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which business obstacle do customer typically face in a traditional network connection
environment?
A. Third-part Ethernet and Fibre Channel switches are not compatible with a converged
infrastructure
B. The blade switches must be small, resulting in a large number of switches
C. The system administrator must add all new network connections, resulting in an increased
management burden
D. Application workloads must be spread across several servers for redundancy
Answer: C

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NO.8 What are the defined levels of storage support for CloudSystem Matrix? (Select two)
A. Matrix Supported
B. Insight Software Support Matrix
C. IS/IM Support Matrix
D. Vendor Supported E. Matrix Certified
Answer: AB

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NO.9 What is the primary HP application for managing Virtual Connect environments across the
data center?
A. Systems Insight manager
B. Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
C. Insight Control
D. Virtual Connect Agents
Answer: B

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NO.10 What does Insight Remote Support Advanced provide that Insight Remote Support Standard
does not?
(Select two)
A. Detailed problem resolution information
B. 24x7 remote monitoring
C. Warranty/contract information
D. No licensing fees E. Fault analysis
Answer: AC

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Exam Code: HP2-N41

Exam Name: HP (Selling HP ArcSight Information Security Solutions)

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NO.1 What is the key message about HP's Global security research efforts?
A. Collaborative effort of HP teams: DVLabs, ArcSight, Fortify, HP Labs
B. Discovering two times more software vulnerabilities than other IPS, NGFW vendors and
continuously finding more than the rest of the market combined
C. SANS, CERT, NIST, OSVDB, software and reputation vendors contributing information to the
ThreatLinQ security portal
D. Over 2000 customers helping DVLabs collect network and security data from around the globe
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which disruptive technology trend is relevant to ArcSight?
A. The decrease in the traditional corporate perimeter
B. Complexity resulting from removing blind spots
C. The increased drive to adopt new technologies
D. The decline of security compliance
Answer: A

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NO.3 Enterprises and governments are facing the most aggressive threat environment in their
history.
What is the main issue that is causing attacks to be more profound or wide-reaching?
A. Adversaries have become smarter, better organized, and more persistent as they look to gain
information capital and IP .
B. At any point in time, there are 200-300 potential security vulnerabilities representing thousands
of potential ways to be exploited.
C. Very few technology executives can confidently answer the simple question from their CEO:
"How secure is my business?"
D. Cyber threats are proven to be proliferating much slower.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a benefit of a holistic approach to security?
A. Decreasing the number of new security breaches
B. Proactive risk reduction: seeing everything, providing context, and acting appropriately
C. Increasing the protection of your cloud environment
D. Firefighting to solve a problem when a breach occurs
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which problems does HP EnterpriseView address?
A. mines data from across the entire enterprise, including HP Server Automation, HP
NetworkAutomation, and HP Operations Orchestration
B. collects, analyzes, and correlates your servers' data to give you better visibility into your risk
C. lets customers track their compliance state across their virtualized environments and helps
manage their software compliance regulations
D. provides vulnerability management, asset profiling, risk management
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HH0-110

Exam Name: Hitachi (Hitachi Data Systems Storage Foundations - Enterprise Exam)

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NO.1 A customer has prepared TrueCopy scripts and now wants to create the first replication pairs in an
Open Systems environment. Which two steps must be completed before issuing TrueCopy commands?
(Choose two.)
A. Configure HORCM files.
B. Install RAID Manager CCI.
C. Ensure that the S-Vols are visible to a host.
D. Configure external ports.
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 What is a primary component of Hitachi Virtual Partition Manager?
A. Port Logical Partition
B. Disk Logical Partition
C. Cache Logical Partition
D. Cache Physical Partition
Answer: C

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NO.3 What does the Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager "Path Health Check" feature provide?
A. It detects link issues before data I/O is affected.
B. It automatically removes the paths where an intermittent error is occurring.
C. It monitors load balancing.
D. It automatically places a recovered path back online.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the purpose of Hitachi Universal Replicator?
A. It migrates data between VSP and AMS storage systems.
B. It maintains a consistent copy of data.
C. It creates synchronous copies of data.
D. It migrates data from competitive arrays.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer is evaluating Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning (HDP) because they are interested in thin
provisioning. What are two other benefits provided by HDP.? (Choose two.)
A. increased performance using wide striping
B. volume creation without formatting time
C. enhanced data protection using more RAID Groups
D. automatic migration between FC and SATA pools
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Which two transport methods can HiTrack use to report SIMs to the Hitachi Data Systems Global
Support Center? (Choose two.)
A. FTP
B. HTTPS
C. HTTP
D. SNMP
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 A customer is deploying a new OLTP database on a VSP that will have a high performance requirement.
They are considering using SSD flash drives, but would like to avoid putting the entire database on SSD.
SAS drives will be sufficient for the majority of the workload. Which Hitachi technology should be used to
simplify the management of this dynamic workload across SSD and SAS tiers?
A. Hitachi Dynamic Tiering
B. Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning
C. Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager
D. Hitachi Universal Volume Manager
Answer: A

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NO.8 One of your customers used Universal Volume Manager (UVM) to virtualize their heterogeneous
storage systems by attaching them to a VSP as external storage. Which two UVM tasks were performed
during the virtualization process? (Choose two.)
A. UVM Discovery of the External target ports.
B. External volumes on the external storage were mapped as Open-9 emulations.
C. Initiator ports were set on the VSP to connect to the external storage systems.
D. External ports were set on the VSP to connect to the external storage systems.
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 A customer has a ShadowImage pair that is currently suspended and the P-Vol is corrupted. They
perform a quick restore. When can they safely start using the data on the P-Vol?
A. after the P-Vol and S-Vol swap CU:LDEV numbers
B. after all of the data is copied from the S-Vol to the P-Vol
C. after the bitmap is transferred and dirty tracks are marked
D. after the difference data is copied from the S-Vol to the P-Vol
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the allocation size and unit used by Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning on a VSP?
A. 16 MB stripe
B. 42 MB page
C. 1024 KB slot
D. 64 MB chunk
Answer: B

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NO.11 A business that generates large amounts of sensitive data has an IT system combining mainframe and
Open-Systems applications. They need a storage solution offering highly secure data storage with
minimal performance impact and costs, and consistent with their green data center policy.
Which three VSP storage system features meet these requirements? (Choose three.)
A. VSP can encrypt data in cache before de-staging to disk.
B. VSP Virtual Storage Directors have a built in encryption capability.
C. VSP offers encryption capabilities to Open-Systems and mainframe applications.
D. VSP reduces capital cost by removing the need for discrete encryption devices.
E. VSP encryption creates no measurable increase in heat output or energy consumption.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.12 What are two components of a storage cluster in a VSP? (Choose two.)
A. Front-end Directors (FED)
B. Fiber Switches (FSW)
C. Virtual Storage Directors (VSD)
D. Service Processors (SVP)
Answer: A,C

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NO.13 You wish to virtualize three external devices on a VSP using Universal Volume Manager. Which
parameter should you consider modifying to avoid high cache write pending?
A. Path Mode
B. Cache Mode
C. Priority Mode
D. I/O Suppression Mode
Answer: B

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NO.14 A storage administrator wants to script a TrueCopy operation in an Open Systems environment.
Which two components are required? (Choose two.)
A. Command Device
B. Storage Navigator 2
C. RAID Manager CCI
D. replication.conf file
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 Which two actions are needed when configuring TrueCopy replication on a VSP? (Choose two.)
A. Set ports on the MCU to Initiator.
B. Set ports on the RCU to Initiator.
C. Add an RCU.
D. Add an MCU.
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: HH0-330

Exam Name: Hitachi (HDS Storage Manager-Business Continuity Enterprise)

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NO.1 Which two statements describe the Command Device? (Choose two.)
A.The Command Device is for CCI communications and can be fully utilized by other applications.
B.The Command Device is dedicated to CCI communications and should not be used by any other
applications.
C.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy and ShadowImage software read and write commands that
are executed by the storage system.
D.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy and ShadowImage software read and write commands that
are executed by the CCI software.
Answer: BC

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NO.2 Where do you find the "horcmstart.sh" command in a default CCI installation in a UNIX system?
A./usr/bin/
B./usr/sbin
C./HORCM/
D./HORCM/usr/bin/
Answer: D

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NO.3 On a Windows system, how do you make sure that the environment parameter is set correctly to use
CCI for ShadowImage operations instead of TrueCopy operations?
A.Verify that HORCC_MRCF is set to 1.
B.Verify that HORCM_MRCF is not set.
C.Verify that HORCC_MRCF is set to 0.
D.Verify that HORCM_MRCF is set to 0.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A pairresync operation is performed on a ShadowImage pair in a PSUE state.
What is the result of the pairresync operation?
A.The pairresync completes immediately.
B.All data on the P-Vol are copied to the S-Vol.
C.The pairresync returns an error because of the PSUE state.
D.The bitmaps are used and only changed tracks are copied from the P-Vol to the S-Vol
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two statements describe the Command Device? (Choose two.)
A.The Command Device is user selected.
B.The Command Device is system selected.
C.The Command Device is a dedicated logical volume on the system which controls the CCI software on
the UNIX/PC host.
D.The Command Device is a dedicated logical volume on the system which functions as the interface to
the CCI software on the UNIX/PC host.
Answer: AD

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NO.6 The CCI instance needs to communicate with the storage system using the Command Device.
Which command should be executed to discover the name of the Command Device on a Windows
server?
A.raidscan -x findcmddev hdisk 0,20
B.raidscan -find commanddev hdisk 0,20
C.raidscan -x find commanddev hdisk 0,20
D.raidscan -find commanddevice hdisk 0,20
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two statements describe the Command Device on UNIX systems? (Choose two.)
A.The volume designated as the Command Device is a raw device.
B.The volume designated as the Command Device is a block device.
C.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy software and ShadowImage software read and write
commands that are executed by the CCI software.
D.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy software and ShadowImage software read and write
commands that are executed by the storage system.
Answer: AD

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NO.8 The CCI instance has failed to start.
What is the most likely cause?
A.The Command Device is labeled.
B.The environment variable HORCC_MRCF is set.
C.The environment variable HORCMINST is not set.
D.The IP address is not referenced in the HORCM file.
Answer: D

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NO.9 On a Windows system, how do you verify that the environment parameter is correctly set to use CCI
for TrueCopy operations instead of ShadowImage operations?
A.Make sure that HORCM_MRCF is set to 1.
B.Make sure that HORCC_MRCF is not set.
C.Make sure that HORCC_MRCF is set to 0.
D.Make sure that HORCM_MRCF is set to 0.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You are looking at the possibility of configuring the Raid Manager software.
Which three devices could be used as a CCI Command Device? (Choose three.)
A.3390-3 LUN
B.LUSE LUN
C.OPEN-V LUN
D.OPEN-3 LUN
E.Virtual LVI/LUN
Answer: CDE

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