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Exam Code: M2020-248
Exam Name: IBM Cognos Midmarket Foundational Sales Mastery Test v1
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Exam Code: C2020-001
Exam Name: IBM OpenPages Developer Fundamentals
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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, what is the correct Folder Path column value required so that the Boston
entity will be imported through FastMap?
A. /NorthAmerica/Mexico/United States/Canada
B. North America/United States/
C. United States/Cleveland/Boston
D. /North America/United States/Boston
Answer: D

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NO.2 Youare logged into the OpenPages platform with full administrative privileges.
You want to add a brand new field in the application so that a specific end user can see the new
field in the application when they log in.
Which two views under the Administration menu would you access? (Choose two.)
A. Object Resets
B. Field Groups
C. Profiles
D. Application Text
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Using OpenPages, you want to define triggers to perform actions. What are three scenarios
where you would do this? (Choose three.)
A. Creating an Object
B. Creating an Object type
C. Associating Objects
D. Copying Objects
E. Creating a user
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 You want to use a filtered list view to build dynamic lists which are displayed in a user's
homepage. Which type offilter would be used?
A. My Filter
B. Public Filter
C. Quick Filter
D. Advanced Filter
Answer: B

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NO.5 What must you do before entering information about the user, user account, and creating the
new OpenPages user?
A. Assign the user at least one profile.
B. Select the group to which the user will belong.
C. Assign the user at least one role.
D. Ensure that the organizationstructure has been finalized.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are the three basic components of the IBM OpenPages platform? (Choose three.)
A. Application server
B. Database server
C. Authentication server
D. E-mail server
E. Cognos Business Intelligence server
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.7 Which three behaviors are supported by dependent fields? (Choose three.)
A. Required
B. Disabled
C. Editable
D. Visible
E. Locked
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 Which part do role assignments play in security?
A. Pole Assignments provide the capability for users to use profiles and role templates together.
B. Pole Assignments provide the capability to define read, write, associate and delete access to
object types.
C. Pole Assignments provide the capability to control field behavior in the system based on role
template.
D. Pole Assignments provide the capability to control user and group access to objects.
Answer: D

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9. You are running the FastMap data load utility to import a template containing a set ofdata that
contains some validation errors.
What will EastMap do next?
A. FastMap will attempt to partial' import the correct data and report the errors of the data that
could not be loaded.
B. FastMap will use a fail-fast approach by stopping on thefirst validation error and reporting it
before continuing.
C. EastMap validates the entire workbook being imported and reports all validation errors found
and allows a corrected workbook to be imported to restart the process.
D. EastMap auto-corrects validation errors by using smart-defaults to correct values for any error.
Answer: C

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10. You need to configure views to help younavigate through the object hierarchy. Which two
views would you configure? (Choose two.)
A. Folder
B. List
C. Context
D. Overview
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: A2010-939
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Exam Name: IBM System Storage DS8000 Technical Solutions V3
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NO.1 Which statement best describes the Tivoli process automation engine of the CCMDB?
A.a platform on which process managers run
B.a platform that networks all process managers to one
C.a single service that helps users connecting to the CCMDB
D.a group of services, each related to a single process manager
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is used to configure and run process definitions in CCMDB?
A.Work definition
B.Process definition
C.Process configuration
D.Work Order management
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two actions are performed from the CCMDB administrative workstation?
(Choose two.)
A.import TADDM data
B.apply language packages
C.deploy CCMDB EAR (Enterprise Archive) files
D.install patches and updates for required middleware
E.manage CCMDB Application Runtime Information Data
Answer: BC

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NO.4 Which two options are a prerequisite for configuring single sign-on (SSO) so that
users can navigate
between TADDM and CCMDB using SSO? (Choose two.)
A.SSL
B.SSH
C.Kerberos
D.Client-authentication
E.File-based repository
Answer: AD

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NO.5 What is the core of the Tivoli process automation engine?
A.a J2EE application running in the WebSphere environment
B.a special standalone application based on Tivoli framework services
C.a Visual Basic application modified by the Maximo development team
D.a Visual Basic application on top of the Tivoli Scripting language and WebSphere
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the application that contains the impact analysis feature in CCMDB?
A.Work Management
B.Change Management
C.Problem Management
D.Workflow Management
Answer: B

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NO.7 Given that the customer's IT environment has been verified, which two prerequisite
steps need to be
taken to ensure that CCMDB requirements have been met? (Choose two.)
A.examine the OS platform for the TADDM server for meeting requirements
B.examine the LDAP interface with the Common Data Model for meeting requirements
C.examine the SOAP interface with the Common Data Model for meeting requirements
D.examine the hardware specifications for the Windows Administrative console for meeting
requirements
E.examine the communication between the authentication client and the authentication
server for meeting
requirements
Answer: AD

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NO.8 One of the tasks that must be performed to install CCMDB is to analyze the roles and
responsibilities
of individuals in the project.
Which step must be performed to create a document to map the activities and tasks to
specific roles in a
CCMDB deployment?
A.define the level of effort for each task
B.define the roles involved in the process
C.define the tasks that will be performed during the project
D.create a Project Plan to outline what steps will be performed
Answer: B

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Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 Implementation
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Exam Name: Assessment: Informix Server 12.10 Assessment
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NO.1 Which statement is true regarding the function that post office configuration can provide?
A. The post office template can be cloned to reuse as different types of aggregate templates.
B. It allows a test of aggregation to be performed with chosen notification style from the
administrative console.
C. It controls the volume of e-mail notifications if post office is enabled globally and Is not
disallowed by Workflow activities.
D. It provides the capability to configure an alert facility to indicate that e-mail notifications are not
being sent to the mail server
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which steps are needed to create an organization structure design from an existing
organization and reporting structure?
A. define organization structure, review organization structure with customer, document
organization structure
B. review organization and reporting structure, formalize organization structure, document
organization structure
C. gather organization structure requirements, discuss alternatives, formalize organization structure,
document organization structure
D. gather organization structure requirements, formalize organization structure, review organization
structure with customer, document organization structure
Answer: C

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NO.3 A. Accounts for Active Directory, Enterprise LDAP User, and Exchange are provisioned immediately.
An approval request is sent to the Payroll system owner for approval of the Payroll account. An
approval request is sent to the Sales system owner for approval of the Sales account. An approval
request is sent to the Information Technology Risk group for approval of the Global Administrator
account and for justification information.
B. Accounts for Active Directory, Enterprise LDAP User, and Exchange are provisioned immediately.
An approval request is sent to the employee's first-line manager for approval of the Payroll account.
An approval request is sent to the Sales system owner for approval of the Sales account. An
approval request is sent to the Information Technology Risk group for approval of the Global
Administrator account and for justification information.
C. Accounts for Active Directory, Enterprise LDAP User, and Exchange are provisioned immediately.
An approval request is sent to the peer of the employee's first-line manager for approval of the
Payroll account. An approval request is sent to the Sales system owner for approval of the Sales
account. An approval request is sent to the Information Technology Risk group for approval of the
Global Administrator account and for justification information.
D. Accounts for Active Directory, Enterprise LDAP User, and Human Resources are provisioned
immediately. An approval request Is sent to the peer of the employee's first-line manager for
approval of the Payroll account. An approval request is sent to the Sales system owner for approval
of the Sales account. An approval request Is sent to the Information Technology Risk group for
approval of the Global Administrator account and for justification information.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Custom workflow elements are registered with IBM Tivoli Identity Manager by editing which
file in the $ITIM_HOME/data directory?
A. enRole.properties
B. workflowextensions.xml
C. workflowDataSyntax.xm!
D. workflowextensions.properties
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two statements are true for service type account defaults? (Choose two.)
A. Account defaults must be hard-coded values or a person attribute.
B. Service type account defaults must be specified for each created service.
C. Service type account defaults are global and are inherited by a service when the service is created.
D. Subsequent changes to the account defaults on the service type are not reflected in existing
services.
E. Account defaults for an existing service can be modified by changing the service type account
defaults
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 Which two options are part of the customization design process? (Choose two.)
A. Test the customization.
B. Create a customization prototype.
C. Document the customization code.
D. Determine the customization scope.
E. Determine the feasibility of the customization
Answer: D,E

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NO.7 Which two steps are required to independently install IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator (Tivoli
Directory Integrator) on a separate computer? (Choose two.)
A. Read the IBM Tivoli Identity Manager (Tivoli Identity Manager) release notes relating to support
levels of Tivoli Directory Integrator and fixes required.
B. After Tivoli Identity Manager is installed, the agentless adapters and the adapter profiles are
automatically installed on the computer that hosts Tivoli Identity Manager.
C. After Tivoli Identity Manager is installed, the agentless adapters are automatically installed.
Manually install the adapter profiles on the computer that hosts Tivoli Identity Manager.
D. After Tivoli Identity Manager is installed, manually install the 5.1 agentless adapters provided
with the product on the computer that hosts Tivoli Directory Integrator. Manually install the adapter
profiles on the computer that hosts Tivoli Identity Manager.
E. After Tivoli Identity Manager is installed, the agentless adapters are automatically installed on the
computer that hosts Tivoli Identity Manager. Import the adapter profiles using the Import/Export
facility on the Tivoli Identity Manager administrative console.
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 When migrating IBM Tivoli Identity Manager (Tivoli Identity Manager) from a test to a
production environment, which task is valid?
A. Export all the LDAP user accounts from test to production.
B. Use the Import/Export feature to migrate the Tivoli Identity Manager configuration.
C. Assign the Tivoli Identity Manager test server the same host name as the production server.
D. Copy all the IBM Tivoli Directory Server data files to the Tivoli Identity Manager production
system
Answer: B

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Exam Name: IBM Smarter Commerce Sales Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 Which change is made by the WebSphere Studio Application Monitoring V3.2 distributed Data
Collector installer (both GUI and silent)?
A. adding SMF support
B. adding a custom service called "AM Custom Service"
C. creating the user "amuser" in the base operating system
D. sourcing the database user's profile in the profile for the user "amuser"
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which Managing Server log(s) might help you discover problems with accessing the database?
A. am_ms.log
B. am_sam.log
C. am_ps1.log and am_ps2.log
D. am_aa1.log and am_aa2.log
Answer: D

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NO.3 What must you do when installing WebSphere Studio Application Monitor V3.2 Managing Server while
using a Network Deployment WebSphere environment?
A. use the default values provided (hostname, and port number 8880)
B. use the localWebSphere information (hostname, and port number)
C. use the Deployment Manager information (hostname, and port number)
D. clear the hostname and port number fields so that the installer can dynamically derive the correct
hostname and port number
Answer: C

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NO.4 What information is collected at trace Level 2? (Choose three.)
A. CPU information
B. method level trace
C. component level trace
D. last known class name
E. advanced request data
F. page swapping information
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.5 When enabling PDF support on WebLogic for the Visualization Engine, which script needs to be
modified to include the correct classpaths?
A. klctl.sh
B. setenv.sh
C. am-start.sh
D. startServer.sh
Answer: D

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NO.6 In order to monitor composite transactions in z/OS environment using WebSphere Studio Application
Monitor, what must be done as part of Data Collector install? What needs to be running in order to be able
to collect correlation data for CICS and IMS Subsystems?
A. CYN1PROC
B. CYN1 Subsystem
C. CYN1PROC and RACF
D. CYN1PROC and CYN1 Subsystem
Answer: D

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NO.7 For WebSphere Studio Application Monitor (WSAM) V3.2 Management Server with DB2 database to
start and function properly, what must you do to set up the DB2 environment before issuing the command
'sh am-start.sh'?
A. locate source the filesetup_env, which is located in the /etc/Tivoli directory
B. locate and source the file's db2profile, which is located in the WAS_HOME directory
C. locate and source the file db2profile, which is located in the WSAM_HOME directory
D. locate and source the file db2profile, which is located in the sqllib subdirectory of the DB2 home
directory
Answer: D

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A. You use the b2 listdb2port command.
B. It is provided when the database is installed.
C. The port is discovered dynamically during the install.
D. You use the b2 getdbm cfg command or viewing /etc/services.
Answer: D

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NO.1 A solution developer has deployed a message flow containing the DatabaseRetrieve node. The
connection properties to the database were created using the mqsicreateconfigurableservice
command. The solution developer has been told that the database is to be relocated to a different
server. How should the connection properties be updated by the solution developer to reflect the
new server?
A. Run mqsisetdbparms.
B. Run mqsichangebroker.
C. Run mqsichangeproperties.
D. Use a context sensitive menu in the Broker view of the Toolkit.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A solution developer creates a message flow that includes an XSLTransform node. The node
property specifies that the XSL style sheet is to be cached. The solution developer deploys the
XSL style sheet in the BAR file with the message flow. Subsequently, the style sheet needs to be
revised. How does the solution developer enable the message flow to use the revised style sheet?
A. Use the mqsicacheadmin command to refresh the cache with the new style sheet.
B. Update the BAR file with the modified style sheet and redeploy it.
C. Update the style sheet in the Application Development view of the Toolkit. Once the changes
are saved, the style sheet is reloadedautomatically by any message flows that use it.
D. Update the style sheet in the directory specified by the Style sheet directory property of the
XSLTransform node. Once the changes aresaved, the style sheet is reloaded automatically by any
message flows that use it.
Answer: B

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NO.3 To activate any new function included in a fix pack, which command must the solution
developer
issue?
A. mqsicvp command.
B. mqsireioad command.
C. mqsichangebroker command with the -f parameter.
D. mqsichangeproperties command with the -n parameter.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A message flow needs to be designed such that available messages must be processed in
sequential order. Missing messages in the sequence must be discarded if they appear later. The
solution developer implements this message flow using Sequence and Resequence nodes. To
meet the specifications for this message flow, how should the solution developer wire the
Resequence node?
A. The Out, Expire, and Missing terminals should be wired together.
B. The Out terminal should be wired, but the Expire and Missing terminals should be left unwired.
C. The Out and Missing terminals should be wired together, and the Expire terminal should be left
unwired.
D. The Out and Expire terminals should be wired together, and the Missing terminal should be left
unwired.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A healthcare company needs to implement WS-Security integrity message signing for an
existing
web service flow that will now be handling sensitive data. Which nodes can the solution developer
use to develop this enhancement? (Choose two)
A. HTTPInput
B. HTTPRequest
C. SOAPInput
D. SOAPRequest
E. SOAPEnvelope
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 Redeploy flow
B. 1. Right click Compute node
2. Choose open ESQL
3. Set breakpoint on right hand side margin

NO.7 A sales company is currently running 2 message flows. The first, ProcessOrder, validates
customer orders and then sends the shipping information to the warehouse via an MQ request
message. Once the warehouse has shipped the order, a reply is sent back which is processed by
the second flow, SendConfirmation, to send a confirmation to the customer. The company is now
expanding and has multiple warehouses. The solution developer must modify ProcessOrder to
send messages to each warehouse only for the items it stocks, and SendConfirmation to send a
response message only when all warehouses have replied. What node(s) should the solution
developer use?
A. SendConfirmation -> MQGet
B. SendConfirmation -> Collector
C. ProcessOrder -> Sequence
SendConfirmation -> Resequence
D. ProcessOrder -> AggregateControl and AggregateRequest
SendConfirmation -> AggregateReply
Answer: D

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NO.8 A solution developer has been informed of a problem with a message flow. Based on the error
given, the problem seems to occur in ESQL code. The solution developer determines the need to
debug the code. How does the solution developer set a breakpoint in the ESQL code?
A. 1. Right click message flow

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about a journal-based backup? (Choose two.)
A.It is supported for HP clients.
B.It is available for supported Windows clients.
C.It is a method of backup that uses a change journal maintained by the Open Sources journal
service
process.
D.It is a method of backup that uses a change journal maintained by the Microsoft Windows journal
service process.
E.It is an alternate method of backup that uses a change journal maintained by the IBM Tivoli
Storage
Manager V6.3 journal service process.
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 How can the activity log for IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 messages be searched from the
client fornode EPED associated with Session 4?
A.Query actiog orig = ( NODE: 4o
B.Query actiog search = ( FRED: 4
C.Query actiog search = ( SESSI ON: 4
D.Query actiog session = ( CLI ENT: 4
Answer: C

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NO.3 By default, the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 (TSM) password expiration for an
administrator or
client node is how many days?
A.30
B.45
C.60
D.90
Answer: D

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NO.4 An IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 (TSM) storage agent has frequent connection problems
with the TSM client.Which file should be checked?
A.activity log
B.dsmerror.log
C.dsmsched.log
D.dsmstagent.log
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which section in the Administration Center shows if the file system where the database is
installed has enough space, and that the last backup completed successfully?
A.Reporting
B.Health Monitor
C.Server Maintenance
D.Enterprise Management
Answer: B

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NO.6 Except for defining or deleting storage pools, which privilege class is granted to an
administrator who will manage IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 databases, storage devices, and
server storage?
A.Server privilege
B.Policy privilege
C.Storage privilege
D.System privilege
Answer: C

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NO.7 An IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.3 (TSM) server has issued the error SQL 2026N.How can a
TSM administrator determine the meaning of this error?
A.From the IBM DB2 command line, run the command? sq12026n
B.From the IBM DB2 command line, run the command show sql202Gn
C.From the TSM Administrative command line, run the command q db2 202 GN
D.From the TSM Administrative command line, run the command help db2 20206N
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which command monitors the amount of active log space used by an IBM Tivoli Storage
Manager V6.3 server?
A.query log
B.query logdir
C.query logfree
D.query logspace
Answer: A

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NO.1 IBM Big Data platform allows an organization to bring together any data source, at any velocity,
to generate insight.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.2 Use cases of analytics of data in motion refers to:
A. Smart Grid Management
B. Real-time promotions
C. Cyber Security
D. ICU Monitoring
E. IT log analysis
F. All of the above
G. None of the above
Answer: F

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NO.3 Hadoop is designed to scale up from a single server to thousands of machines, but with:
A. A very low degree of fault tolerance
B. A very high degree of fault tolerance
C. No Fault tolerance
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.4 Infosphere BigInsights enables a computing solution that is:
A. Scalable - New nodes can be added as needed, and added without needing to change data
formats.
B. Cost effective - Hadoop brings massively parallel computing to commodity servers. The result is a
sizable decrease in the cost per terabyte of storage.
C. Flexible -Hadoop is schema-less, and can absorb any type of data, structured or not, and from any
number of sources.
D. Fault tolerant - When a node is lost, the system redirects work to another location of the data
and continues processing.
E. All of the above
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NO.5 Infosphere Streams does not feature:
A. Un-clustered runtime for low latency streaming applications
B. Mining toolkit to score data models in real time
C. Analysis of both structured and unstructured data
D. High availability
Answer: A

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NO.6 With a Big Data platform an organization can
A. Discover and experiment
B. Analyze information in motion
C. Analyze extreme volumes of information
D. Manage and plan
E. All of the above
Answer: E

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per_dive_english/$file/IIGF%20-%20Quebec%20%20Big%20Data%20Deeper%20Dive%20English.pd
f (7th slide)

NO.7 Top Industry Big Data use cases include:
A. Telcom
B. Healthcare
C. Finance
D. Government
E. Retail
F. Utilities
G. All of the above
Answer: G

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use-cases

NO.8 The analytic capabilities that come built-in with the Big Data platform include:
A. Geospatial
B. Mathematical
C. Predictive
D. Data Mining
E. Statistical
F. All of the above
Answer: F

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NO.1 A customer needs two client IBM i partitions on a 4-core Power 720, with storage hosted by
VIO Server. What is the least expensive method to manage this environment?
A. HMC
B. Virtual Partition Manager
C. Integrated Virtualization Manager
D. Systems Director Navigator for PowerVM
Answer: C

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NO.2 A client IBM i 7.1 partition is being hosted by dual VIO Server partitions (VIOS-1 & VIOS-2). A
Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) has been created in order to provide Ethernet failover capability
for the IBM i partition. The IBM i partition will use the Ethernet resources of the VIO Server
partitions.
How many virtual Ethernet adapters need to be defined on the HMCI in the IBM i client, and VIO
Server partition profiles to support SEA and failover?
A. IBM i Client: 1 adapter:
VIOS-1: 1 adapter
VIOS-2: 1 adapter
B. IBM i Client: 2 adapters
VIOS-1: 1 adapter
VIOS-2: 1 adapter
C. IBM i Client: 1 adapter
VIOS-1: 2 adapters
VIOS-2: 2 adapters
D. IBM i Client: 2 adapters
VIOS-1: 2 adapters
VIOS-2: 2 adapters
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer wants two VIO Servers in the CEO of a proposed Power 720. To provide redundancy
for the IBM V7000 SAN they will utilize to provision disk for his client partitions.
What is the minimum required to make this possible?
A. A 6-disk storage backplane
B. An 8-disk storage backplane
C. A 6-disk storage backplane and the split drive bay feature
D. An 8-disk storage backplane and the split drive bay feature
Answer: C

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NO.4 Disk from a fibre-attached V7000 disk subsystem will be used for an IBM i partition. What type
of adapter is required in the IBM i partition?
A. SAS disk adapter
B. Virtual SAS adapter
C. Virtual SCSI adapter
D. Fibre Channel adapter
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer has multiple POWERS 570 servers. The servers are controlled by multiple HMCs.
The customer is installing an additional Power 770 server in this environment but will retain their
existing HMCs. No updates to FSP or HMC levels have been made since installation of the
POWERS servers.
After reviewing the cover letters for ESP and HMC firmware levels, what updates are required to
support the addition of the new server into the network?
A. Update only the HMCs to the latest version.
B. Update only the FSPs to the latest release available.
C. Update the FSP5 and HMC5 of the existing systems to the minimum level required.
D. Update the POWERS ESPs to the most recent version available for the installed firmware
release. Update the HMCs to the most recent release available.
Answer: C

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NO.6 In addition to Qshell and PASE, what other product needs to be installed on an IBM i partition
in order to remotely run scripts on an HMC?
A. IBM Portable Utilities for i
B. IBM i Integrated Server Support
C. IBM Cryptographic Service Provider
D. IBM Network Authentication Enablement for i
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer has purchased a new BladeCenter H (BCH) and POWER blade to run IBM i. The
POWER blade is configured with two Fibre Channel interlaces for attaching SAN and tape.
They have an IBM TS3500 tape library with a fibre channel connection, and current firmware is
running through a fibre switch to another IBM i system. One port on the existing switch and one
port in the BCH fibre switch has been zoned to provide a connection from the tape library to the
BCH.
After IBM i 7.1 SLIC and base OS are installed on the blade from IBM distribution media, the tape
library does not appear in the device configuration.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The existing switch does not support NPIV.
B. NPIV enablement was omitted when configuring the BCH switch.
C. The BCH switch configuration must match the link speed of the TS3500.
D. A switch-to-switch cable is required. A switch to device cable was shipped with the BCH by default.
Answer: A

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NO.8 An administrator wants to share a fibre attached TS3100 tape library between multiple IBM i7.1
partitions. The system contains a PC #5774 - 4Gb fibre adapter and uses an IBM fibre switch. All
IBM i partitions are hosted by VIO Server (VIOS).
How could the administrator configure the sharing of the tape library?
A. Configure NPIV within VIOS, then configure each partition to use NPIV to share the tape library.
B. Create a script that can be called after each backup job in a partition finishes, which will move
the fibre adapter to the next partition
C. In the HMC, select the host Power System, then select Operations - Schedule Operations -
New. Create a new Scheduled Dynamic Reconfiguration operation to move the fibre adapter
between partitions.
D. In the HMC, select the VIOS partition, then select Operations - Schedule Operations - Options -
New. Create a new Scheduled Dynamic Reconfiguration operation to move the fibre adapter
between partitions.
Answer: B

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NO.1 A customer is in need of archiving a great amount of medical records for a government
research project. These records are of patients, diseases, treatments and results. These records will
be built over the term of 5 years and need to be archived for 20 years.
What would be the best solution to store these records and provide maximum and efficient record
access?
A. Tape Encryption
B. Tivoli Key Lifecycle Manager
C. Linear Tape File System
D. Tivoli Endpoint Manager
Answer: C

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NO.2 A sales representative has been meeting with the IT Director, and discussing the small
footprint and capacity of the DCS3700 and how this solution would allow them to add the needed
capacity in a very small footprint. The IT Director has agreed to purchase the DCS3700 if the IT staff
can perform day-to-day management of the new storage solution without extensive training.
What tool would be used to demonstrate the management capabilities of the DCS3700?
A. Capacity Magic
B. Disk Magic
C. DDP Calculator Tool
D. Storage Manager/Simulator
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer has a large campus facility and needs to connect storage in two different buildings
that are 1 km apart. Which of the following cables would be used?
A. SAS
B. SCSI
C. Single-mode fiber
D. Multi-mode fiber
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer is using an aging EMO DMX and is running out of floor space in their data center.
They are a loyal EMO customer but the 010 is willing to have a quick discussion with IBM.
What IBM storage efficiency technologies should be discussed to address their floor space issue?
A. FlashCopy and replication
B. tape automation and LTO tape
C. storage virtualization and thin provisioning
D. manual tiring and external virtualization
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which type of drive would be the most cost effective for tier 3 level data?
A. Nearline SAS
B. SSD
C. Fibre Channel
D. SCSI
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which IBM resource would a Business Partner without access to lab equipment use to provide
a client proof of concept?
A. IBM Innovation Center
B. IBM Techline Pre-sales Support
C. IBM Competeline
D. IBM PartnerWorld
Answer: A

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NO.7 Based on the LTO standard, what is the published data compression rate of LTO-6?
A. 2.0:1
B. 2.5:1
C. 3.5:1
D. 5.0:1
Answer: B

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NO.8 On Monday, Wednesday and Friday a customer completes a backup of only the files that are
changed from the previous full backup.
This is referred to as what type of backup?
A. incremental backup
B. differential backup
C. full backup
D. partial file backup
Answer: D

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NO.1 According to a study performed by IDC, customers who have implemented IBM Sterling File
Gateway have seen a ______ reduction in labor costs related to troubleshooting edge-based file
transfer activity
A. 65%
B. 50%
C. 38%
D. 90%
Answer: D

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NO.2 How does IBM Sterling B2B Integrator achieve B2B Process Automation?
A. Using a proprietary scripting language.
B. By means of a visual workflow modeler.
C. Writing new Java code for each process.
D. Through manually routing messages.
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.redbooks.ibm.com/redbooks/pdfs/sg247927.pdf(page 6, topic 1.3.4, last
paragraph)

NO.3 Which of the following IBM/Sterling solutions provides "at rest" data encryption?
A. IBM Sterling Connect:Direct
B. IBM Sterling Secure Proxy
C. IBM Sterling File Gateway
D. IBM Sterling Control Center
E. All of the above.
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.redbooks.ibm.com/redbooks/pdfs/sg247927.pdf(page 247, Security, 3rd
bulleted point)

NO.4 What can happen when data such as purchase order information is incorrectly re-keyed into
internal business systems and applications?
A. Decrease in inventory costs.
B. Late deliveries & penalties such as charge backs.
C. Increased customer satisfaction & sales.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following represents a good opportunity for IBM Sterling B2B Integrator?
A. An organization seeking secure, process-driven partner integration.
B. An organization seeking to extend their SOA and ESB infrastructures to B2B partners.
C. Customers with multiple data movement patterns and point solutions (silos) needing to
consolidate on a strategic platform.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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6. File transfer challenges are commonly seen in which industry?
A. Government
B. Telecommunications
C. Distribution and Logistics
D. Manufacturing
E. All of the above.
Answer: C

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7. IBM Sterling File Gateway is IBM's multi-protocol "_______" communication solution for
secure B2B file exchange.
A. edge
B. cloud
C. internal
D. ESB
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www-01.ibm.com/software/commerce/managed-file-transfer/products/filegatew
ay/(bulleted point #1)
8. Which of the following is NOT a feature of IBM Sterling File Gateway that helps customers
ensure that they are compliant with regulatory requirements?
A. Auditing capabilities.
B. Access controls for file transfer activity.
C. Secure file transfer protocols.
D. Encryption of files both in-flight and at rest.
E. All of the above features help customers ensure that they are compliant with regulatory
requirements.
Answer: A

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Exam Name: IBM Sterling Order Management V9.2, Solution Design
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Exam Name: Assessment: Developing Portlets and Web Applications with IBM Web Experience Factory 8.0
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NO.1 A business requirement is to charge payment for the exchange order upfront and then refund
the customer when the returned item is received. This requirement should be configured as a:
A. even exchange.
B. regular exchange.
C. advanced exchange.
D. advanced pre-paid exchange.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer would like a purchase order (PO) to be "Created", but it should only treat 80% of
future supply as available. This should happen until the PO receives a status update that indicates its
been "Approved", at which point 90% of the future supply can be considered for promising. Future
supply can be considered when scheduling orders but should not be considered when releasing the
pick instructions to the fulfillment center. In order to model this requirement with MINIMAL custom
logic, the solution design must:
A. 1. Create an extended status of PO "Created" which is "Approved".2. Create a new supply type
corresponding to the "Inbound approved" status.3. Map the PO status "Approved" to the supply
type "Inbound approved" and status "Created" to supply type "Purchase order placed".4. Set up the
appropriate safety factor of 80% for supply type "Purchase order placed" and 90% for supply type
"Inbound approved".5. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to
schedule transaction to future supplies.6. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type
corresponding to release transaction to use only onhand supplies.
B. 1. Create an extended status of PO "Created" which is "Approved".2. Create a new supply type
corresponding to the "Inbound approved" status.3. Map the PO status "Approved" to the supply
type "Inbound approved" and status "Created" to supply type "Purchase order placed".4. Set up the
appropriate safety factor of 80% for demand type "Scheduled" and 90% for demand type
"Released".5. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to schedule
transaction to future supplies.6. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type
corresponding to release transaction to use only onhand supplies.
C. 1. Create an extended status of PO "Created" which is "Approved".2. Create a new supply type
corresponding to the "Inbound approved" status.3. Map the PO status "Approved" to the supply
type "Inbound approved" and status "Created" to supply type "Purchase order placed".4. Use
Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to schedule transaction to future
supplies.5. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to release
transaction to use only onhand supplies.6. Implement the Supply corrections user exit to only show
80% or 90% of supply as applicable.
D. 1. Create an extended status of PO "Created" which is "Approved".2. Create a new supply type
corresponding to the "Inbound approved" status.3. Map the PO status "Approved" to the supply
type "Inbound approved" and status "Created" to supply type "Purchase order placed".4. Use
Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to schedule transaction to future
supplies.5. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to release
transaction to use only onhand supplies.6. Implement the Availability corrections user exit to only
show 80% or 90% of supply as applicable.
Answer: A

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NO.3 In the integration between Sterling Order Management V9.2 and WebSphere Commerce,
which of the following actions will a customer service representative be UNABLE to take when
entering orders through the Sterling application?
A. Make manual adjustments in an order.
B. Enter orders for a customer who has no customer ID.
C. Pre-populate customer information from WebSphere Commerce.
D. Tell customers about promotions and discounts applied to the order.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A retailer's delivery rules do not allow shipping for an open box television (TV) that is more
than 150 miles away. However, they do support moving this TV through a network of stores that are
spread throughout the country, until it reaches a store that supports delivery to the customer. The
retailer needs to configure such a multi-hop transfer of inventory through the supply chain and
provide an accurate promise date to a customer who is over 1000 miles away from the store with
the open box TV. In order to do so, Sterling Order Management considers all the following
configuration settings EXCEPT for:
A. Receiving store calendar.
B. Receipt Processing Time.
C. Delivery resource pool capacity.
D. Transfer relationship across stores.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A business needs to configure a drop ship from a vendor to a customer directly with visibility
into the purchase order (PO) created by the vendor and status updates on the PO. What should be
done to meet this requirement?
A. 1. Model the vendor as a seller and node, where the organization does not have a hierarchical
relation with the seller organization on theorder.2. Do not check "Suppress chained order creation
even if seller requires" setting.3. Run Chained_Order_Create to create the purchase order.PO
getting shipped will result in the corresponding sales order line being shipped.
B. 1. Model the vendor as a seller and node, where the organization has a hierarchical relation with
the seller organization on the order.2. Check the "Suppress chained order creation even if seller
requires" setting.3. Run Chained_Order_Create to create the purchase order.PO getting shipped will
result in the corresponding sales order line being shipped.
C. 1. Model the vendor as a seller and node, where the organization has a hierarchical relation with
the seller organization on the order.2. Check the "Suppress chained order creation even if seller
requires" setting.3. Run Chained_Order_Create to create the PO. Place custom logic on PO
"Shipped" event to update the corresponding sales order status to"Shipped".
D. 1. Model the vendor as a seller and node, where the organization does not have a hierarchical
relation with the seller organization on theorder.2. Implement a listener on the PO pipeline that
updates the sales order pipeline.3. Implement custom logic to stamp the PO's delivery location as
customer's address.PO getting shipped will result in the corresponding sales order line being
shipped.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer purchased a DVD player from a store, and later realized that some of the required
features were missing. The customer tries to return the DVD player for a refund, but the sales order
cannot be located in the Sterling application. Which type of return should be created in the Sterling
application?
A. Refund Order
B. Exchange Order
C. Blind Return Order
D. Speed Exchange Order
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following Sterling Call Center business requirements CANNOT be implemented
using the out of the box application?
A. Monitor orders for FTC compliance.
B. Schedule appointments for delivery items.
C. Initiate returns and refunds to customers immediately, if required.
D. Retrieve a WebSphere Commerce shopping cart from the Sterling Call Center.
Answer: D

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