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Exam Code: C2050-241
Exam Name: IBM Sterling Order Management V9.2, Solution Design
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Last Update: 2014-07-31

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Exam Code: M2090-224
Exam Name: IBM Initiate Master Data Service Sales Mastery v1
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NO.1 What is NOT a strategic value of an Enterprise Master Person Index (EMPI) solution?
A. increase profitability
B. maintain provider registry
C. ensure regulatory compliance
D. improve quality of patient care
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is used to determine the price of an IBM Initiate solution?
A. number of records managed
B. number of user licenses
C. number of CPUs
D. number of employees in the organization
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is NOT one of the reasons for the IBM acquisition of Initiate.?
A. consolidation
B. growth
C. investment
D. integration
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2070-586
Exam Name: IBM Certified Solution Designer - Case Manager v5.1
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Exam Code: A2090-552
Exam Name: IBM Optim Implementation for Distributed Systems (2009)
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Exam Code: P2180-089
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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the information from the Relationships tab of an Access Definition, and the associated Show Steps
report as shown in the exhibit, what is the reason that the ITEM 552.S table is listed as UNTRAVERSED?
A. Options (2) must be enabled for the relationship between DETAILS and ITEM 552.S.
B. The DETAILS table is designated as a Reference Table so all relationships are ignored for this table.
C. Options (1) must be disabled for the relationship between DETAILS and ITEM 552.S.
D. No relationship exists between ITEM 552.S and any other table.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You have installed the Optim Server on an AIX system. The system is configured with various internal
and external storage options attached to the server. Where should the Optim Temporary Work folder be
placed?
A. the attached archive appliance
B. the attached NAS device
C. the system's internal disk drives
D. the attached SAN device
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are installing IBM Optim into an Oracle environment. Which statement is correct about user
permissions?
A. The installation user requires the DBA role.
B. The installation user is the only user that can run Optim.
C. The installation user's permissions must be deleted once the installation is complete and all DB Aliases
are created.
D. The installation user must have the SELECT ANY DICTIONARY role.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which databases are directly supported on distributed platforms for Optim Test Data Management?
A. DB2 LUW, Oracle, Microsoft SQL Server, Microsoft Access
B. Sybase, Informix, Progress, DB2 LUW, MySQL, Microsoft SQL Server
C. Informix, Microsoft SQL Server, Sybase, DB2 LUW, Oracle
D. Microsoft Access, MySQL, Progress, DB2 LUW, Oracle, Sybase
Answer: C

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NO.5 What will cause a failure during an Archive Process?
A. An Optim Connect or ODBC definition does not exist for the Archive Collection.
B. An Archive File Collection already contains more than 12 Archive Files.
C. An invalid Archive File is automatically added to an Archive File Collection.
D. An Archive Process will always complete unless the gnore Errors?check box is selectedAn Archive
Process will always complete unless the ?gnore Errors?check box is selected
Answer: C

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NO.6 Given the following command-line export command: PR0CMND /EXPORT TYPE=EX NAME=%.%
Which required parameter is missing from this syntax?
A. The name of the export file is missing.
B. The name of the report file is missing.
C. The name of the Optim Directory is missing.
D. The name of the parameter file is missing.
Answer: A

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NO.7 When performing an archive process that uses a Storage Profile, which action could be performed as a
result of using the storage profile?
A. Creates a connection to the database for use by the storage management device.
B. Creates a connection to the storage management device and copies an Archive File to a backup
device.
C. Creates a storage allocation parameter for the storage or file management system.
D. Creates a duplicate of the existing information from the Archive Repository on the storage
management device.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You can use the silent installer in a UNIX environment to install the Optim Server. The silent installer is
NOT available for which two of the following platforms? (Choose two.)
A. HP-UX 11i v2
B. Red Hat Linux 3
C. IBM AIX 5
D. Solaris 8
E. SUSE 10
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: M2150-709
Exam Name: IBM Security Systems Sales Mastery Test v3
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Exam Code: A2040-408
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition Application Development Update
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NO.1 David has added a Name Picker control to his XPages bound to an Edit Box control. He needs
to allow the users to select multiple names. Assuming type-ahead is not enabled, how would he do
that?
A. Go to the Name Picker control. Add a multi-value separator to the Client separators box
(multipleSeparator property).
B. Go to the Name Picker control. Add a multi-value separator to the Suggestions separators box
(valueListSeparator property).
C. Go to the Edit Box control that will store the values. In the All Properties table, enter a multi-value
separator to the multipleSeparatorproperty.
D. Go to the Edit Box control that will store the values. In the All Properties table, enter a
multi-value separator to the valueListSeparatorproperty.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are two ways Olly can identify which of his applications are not assigned to a working set?
(Choose two.)
A. Open Bookmarks.nsf and look in the Working Sets\None view.
B. In the Applications view, in the Manage Working Sets menu, select All.
C. In the Applications view, in the Manage Working Sets menu, select None.
D. In Quick Links tab of the home page, click on the "Applications Not in Working Set" option.
E. In the Applications view, in the Manage Working Sets menu, select "Applications Not in Working
Set".
Answer: D,E

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NO.3 Which option will provide a formatted table with two columns, three rows, a title,
description, and footer area?
A. Add a computed field to the custom control, change the content type to HTML, and enter the
following code: <table><td><tr></tr><tr></tr><tr></tr></td> <td> <tr></tr><tr></tr><tr></tr></td>
</table>
B. Add a computed field to the custom control, change the content type to HTML, and enter the
following code: <table><tr><td></td><td></td></tr><tr> <td></td><td></td></tr><tr>
<td></td><td></td></tr></table>.
C. Add a form table control to the custom control. Enter a title and description to the form title and
form description form options. Drop a formlayout row onto the table. Drop two layout column
controls onto the row. Repeat twice for the additional rows.
D. Add a form table control to the custom control. Enter a title and description to the form title and
form description form options. Drag a formlayout column onto the table. Drop three form layout
row controls onto the column. Repeat for the second column.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Hannah would like to exclude an application's image files from synchronizing with the Version
Control Management system. How can she configure this?
A. Hannah needs to list the filenames in the .svnignore file.
B. Select the files, right-click and select Do not synchronize.
C. Choose Preferences > Team > Ignore Resources > Add pattern.
D. Choose Preferences > Domino Designer > Source Control > Exclusion List.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Samantha would like to use the Search functionality provided in the Application Layout control.
What does she need to do to configure search on the Application Layout control in the Properties
view?
A. Samantha needs to click on the Place Bar tab, enter "true" for the showSearch property, and
select the Page Name for displaying results.
B. Samantha needs to click on the All Properties tab, enter "true" for the showSearch property, and
select the Page Name for displayingresults.
C. Samantha needs to select the Title Bar tab, select "Show search controls (options dropdown, edit
box, and search icon)", and select the PageName for displaying results.
D. Samantha needs to click on the Search tab, select "Show search controls (options dropdown, edit
box, and search icon)", and select the PageName for displaying results.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Richard wants to allow his users to select names from either of two views using the Name
Picker control. How can he do this?
A. Richard can use a single Name Picker with two dominoViewNamePicker dataProviders.
B. Richard will need to add two Name Pickers, each using a dominoViewNamePicker dataProvider.
C. Richard will need to use a beanNamePicker dataProvider to merge the contents of the two views
for a single Name Picker.
D. Richard can use a single Name Picker with a namePickerAggregator dataProvider. He can add two
dominoViewNamePicker dataProviders tothe namePickerAggregator.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Ellie wants to add an icon as the first column on her Data View. How can she achieve this?
A. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn to the details facet.
B. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn to the iconColumn property.
C. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn as the first column in the extraColumns property.
D. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn as the first column in the summaryColumn property.
Answer: B

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NO.8 When using the Pager Save State Control, which property is used to define which control the
pager applies to?
A. for
B. target
C. binding
D. refreshId
Answer: A

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A2040-406 Test Answers, C6010-G40 Exam Cram, C4090-450 Real Exams

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Exam Code: A2040-406
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition System Administration A
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Exam Code: C6010-G40
Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud Enterprise+ (SCE+) Sales Mastery Test
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Exam Code: C4090-450
Exam Name: Midrange Storage Sales V1
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NO.1 A customer is running a different host protocols in their data center. What host protocols can
be connected to the Storwize V7000, if the customer wants to gain benefits from the embedded
Real Time Compression function?
A. FCoe and FCP
B. iSCSI, FCoe and FCp
C. FCP and Ethernet
D. SAS, FCP and FCoE
Answer: D

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NO.2 After identifying a customer business requirements and gathering information on their storage
environment. The sales specialist determines that the IBM Storwize V7000 would be the ideal
solution for this customer because they are.
A. A SAS attach server environment
B. An IBM IOS version 7 customer
C. A small mainframe customer with a Z590 with z/OS
D. A system Z customer running z/OS with DS8000 storage.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer is interested in a Storage solution that can offer compression. What advantage
would the Storwize V7000 offer?
A. Real Time Compression
B. Post Process Compression
C. Host Based Compression
D. Hash Based Deduplication
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
https://www304.ibm.com/partnerworld/wps/servlet/ContentHandler/stg_ast_sto_wp_v7000_real_
time_compre ssion

NO.4 A customer has a need for a midrange Storage Solution that provides both block and file
access and also supports 200 snapshots per volume.
What solution best meets the customer needs.
A. IBM N6210
B. IBM Storwize V3700
C. IBM TS7620
D. IBM DCS3700
Answer: B

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NO.5 During a meeting with a customer they discuss a data base application that has very high I/O
requirements.
What IBM storage solution should be discussed with this customer?
A. DS3500
B. Storwize V3700
C. N3240
D. Flashsystem 820
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
http://public.dhe.ibm.com/common/ssi/ecm/en/tsw03192usen/TSW03192USEN.PDF

NO.6 Through analysis of a customer environment it has been determined that they need to add
about 8TB of Tier 0 Storage. The customer is also planning to add 10 TB of space with Storwize
V7000.
What is the best option of adding the Tier 0 space?
A. Add SSDs to the Storwize V7000 configuration.
B. Externally visualize a Flash System 820 with the Storwize V7000
C. Add an additional Storwize V7000 with SSDs and cluster together.
D. Externally virtualize a Storwize V3700 with SSDs included in the system
Answer: A

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NO.7 What organization within IBM provides pre-sales Technical Support to both IBM and Business
partners areas such as configuration support and technical Q&A.
A. Lab services
B. Techline
C. ATS
D. Compete Center
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer has the following requirements, 24TB raw capacity. Which IBM storage system
could best fulfill the requirements?
A. Storwize V3700
B. Storwize V7000
C. Flex System V7000
D. SVC CG8
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2010-579
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NO.1 What are two benefits of an adaptive subfile backup? (Choose two.)
A. Large backup window
B. Limited connection time
C. Incremental forever backup
D. Longer Windows file retention
E. Reduced bandwidth requirements
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 When running a backup of a client which has journaling enabled, which option for a manual backup
using the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager GUI performs a normal incremental backup without using the
journal?
A. Nojournal
B. Incremental
C. Incremental (complete)
D. Incremental (without journal)
Answer: D

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NO.3 The customer tells the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) administrator that a Windows file server has
to be upgraded and therefore is put into maintenance. The manager wants to have the data immediately
available for restore in the event of problems. What is one of the actions of the TSM administrator?
A. move data
B. export node
C. copy activedata
D. prepare backupset
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about a point-in-time restore? (Choose two.)
A. Point-in-time restores can be performed for image backups and the system state data for Windows.
B. Files which were deleted from the client workstation prior to the point-in-time specified will be restored.
C. Selective or incremental-by-date backups must be used to restore the state that existed at a specific
date and time.
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) restores file versions from the most recent backup before the
specified point-in-time date.
E. If the requested point-in-time restore date and time is prior to the oldest version maintained by TSM,
the object will be restored.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 A client node's file is bound to a management class that has an archive retention set to one year. The
file on that client is archived once a month for one year. At the end of one year how many copies of the
archived file exist in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager?
A. 7
B. 12
C. 19
D. 30
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which command grants access to another node from the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Server
administrative command line?
A. grant proxy node
B. set node access
C. grant node proxy
D. grant node access
Answer: A

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NO.7 A new IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) Backup-Archive client must be set up on a TSM Server. This
client requires a new policy with three generations of backups for existing files, two generations of deleted
files, and the older generations to be kept for two months. This new client, called NEWCLT, will be part of
policy domain POLDOM. Which sequence of commands will accomplish this?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B

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NO.8 All client data has been backed up to the primary pools. What is the recommended flow of data within
the storage hierarchy?
A. The storage pool data is backed up.
B. The storage pool data is backed up and then migrated and reclaimed.
C. The storage pool data is migrated to the next pool and then backed up.
D. The data stays in the pool, and the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager database is backed up
Answer: B

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NO.1 When your customer needs to move broad based megabyte and gigabyte files in the
cloud with a
one-to-many manner with their trading partners, which solution will best meet your
customer's need?
A.IBM Sterling B2B Integration Services
B.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service
C.IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration
D.IBM Sterling Transformation Services
Answer: B

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NO.2 The top obstacles of lack of budget and cost of systems that your customer's suppliers
and buyers feel
prevents them from doing more B2B e-Commerce with their trading partners is known as
which of the
following?
A.Total cost of ownership (TCO)
B.Complexity of integration
C.Lack of resources
D.B2B Infrastructure Management
Answer: A

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NO.3 What tool can IBM's business partners leverage that shows how a full outsourced
managed services
operation can show savings and return a handsome ROI in a relatively short time to a
customer?
A.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service Calculator
B.IBM Sterling B2B Integrator Calculator
C.IBM B2B Integration Services ROI Calculator
D.IBM B2B Automation Savings Calculator
Answer: C

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NO.4 The three solutions that make up the IBM Sterling Cloud Services or SaaS solutions
are:
A.IBM Sterling B2B Integrator, IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration Network, and IBM Sterling File
Transfer
Service
B.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service, IBM Sterling B2B Integration Services, and IBM Sterling
B2B
Integrator
C.IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration Network, IBM Sterling File Transfer Service, and IBM
Sterling B2B
Integration Services
D.None of the above.
Answer: C

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format to the required
trading partner's format for their systems?
A.IBM Sterling B2B Collaboration
B.IBM Sterling File Transfer Service
C.IBM Sterling Process Automation
D.IBM Sterling Transformation Services
Answer: D

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NO.1 In the output of the CROSSTABS procedure, large residuals indicate agreement between the
data
and the null hypothesis of independence.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.2 If you use the IBM SPSS Statistics Select Cases dialog to conduct analysis on a subset of cases
and you want to keep all cases in the same dataset, which option is appropriate?
A. Copy unselected cases to a new dataset
B. Copy selected cases to a new dataset
C. Delete unselected cases
D. Filter out unselected cases
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NO.3 In the Aggregate data procedure1 if you specify more than one Break Variable, ________ in
the
Break Variables list will determine case order.
A. Variable size
B. Variable label
C. Variable name
D. Variable order
Answer: D

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NO.4 What type of graph would you use to see the distribution of a scale variable?
A. Bar chart
B. Pie chart
C. Histogram
D. Scatter plot
Answer: C

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NO.5 If you request an aggregated dataset or data file in the Aggregate procedure, the number of
cases
in the new aggregated file is equal to what?
A. Number of cases in the original data file
B. Number of aggregated summary variables
C. Number of categories of the variables specified in the Break Variables list
D. Number of cases that you specified in the Aggregate Data dialog box
Answer: C

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NO.6 With IBM SPSS Statistics you can assign one of three levels of measurement to a variable.
Which
is the correct list of all three levels?
A. Nominal - Ordinal - Interval
B. Categorical - Interval - Ratio
C. Nominal - Ordinal - Scale
D. Nominal - Interval – Scale
Answer: C

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NO.7 When you read data stored in an Excel file via File ... Open ... Data, you may need to specify
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A. Read variable names from the first row of data
B. Read a Range of cells
C. Specify the Worksheet to read/import
D. Number of Worksheets to read/import
Answer: A,B,C

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Exam Name: IBM InfoSphere Guardium
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NO.1 Which ports are used by UNIX S-TAP?
A. 9500 TCP (unencrypted) and 8075 TCP (encrypted)
B. 16016 TCP (unencrypted) and 16018 TCP (encrypted)
C. 9500 TCP (unencrypted) and 8075 UDP (heartbeat signal)
D. 16016 TCP (unencrypted) and 16018 UDP (hearbeat signal)
Answer: B

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NO.2 How does Application End User Translation determine the correct application user?
A. Uses Client MAC Address to determine Client IP .
B. Imports LDAP and matches Client IP address with Application User name.
C. Guesses the correct application user by comparing session time to / from the database server.
D. Integrates with Enterprise Business Application to deterministically capture application user
name.
Answer: D

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NO.3 When configuring S-TAP on Solaris Zones or AIX WPARs, what is the correct way to configure
the
connect_to_ip parameter in the Inspection Engines?
A. connect_to_ip = 127.0.0.1
B. connect_to_ip = 1.1.1.1 / 0.0.0.0
C. connect_to_ip = <IP address of local zone>
D. connect_to_ip = <IP address of global zone>
Answer: C

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NO.4 With Guardium version 8.x "S-TAP for z" monitoring a single DB2 instance on z/OS, which
statement is true?
A. There is typically 1 started task running on z:
ADHSPAGT = Agent
B. There are typically 2 started tasks running on z:
ADHCXXXX = Collector
ADHSPSRV = Server
C. There are typically 3 started tasks running on z:
ADHMXXXX = Master
ADHSPAGT = Agent
ADHSPSRV = Server
D. There are typically 4 started tasks running on z:
ADHCXXXX = Collector
ADHMXXXX = Master
ADHSPAGT = Agent
ADHSPSRV = Server
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which mechanism is used to intercept DB2 and Informix shared memory traffic on all UNIX
platforms except Linux?
A. TEE
B. PCAP
C. A-TAP
D. K-TAP
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the purpose of K-TAP flex load in Linux installations?
A. Allows upgrade of the K-TAP module without requiring a reboot of the host operating system.
B. Give the system administrator the ability to stop traffic interception by manually unloading the
K-TAP module.
C. Allows installation of K-TAP module with closest match in cases where an exact kernel match is
not available.
D. Allows the system administrator to upgrade the K-TAP module directly from GIM interface on
Central Manager.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which storage type requires a dsm.sys file to be uploaded to the Guardium appliance?
A. SCP
B. TSM
C. SFTP
D. CENTERA
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which method stops a non-GIM installed Windows S-TAP?
A. Invoking the "stop winstap" command.
B. Stopping the GUARDIUM_STAP service.
C. Ending Guardium S-TAP process through Task Manager.
D. Removing S-TAP from startup programs and rebooting server.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: A2180-189
Exam Name: Assessment: Blueworks Live; BPM Exp/Std Ed V7.5.1, BPM Analysis
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NO.1 A company needs to improve their hiring process and hired a BPM analyst to map the current
state. During the process discovery session, the team identifies that the process steps to review the
"hiring" request is the same as the process steps to review a "promotion/pay rise" request. What
should the BPM analyst use to map the activities needed for the review of the "hiring" request in
Blueworks Live?
A. a sub-process
B. a different color
C. a linked process
D. a separate milestone
Answer: C

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NO.2 A BPM analyst is designing a process in the Process Diagram View, and realizes the process
must account for a technical exception following an activity. What symbol in the BlueWorks Live
needs to be used for this technical exception?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B

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NO.3 During the Process Discovery phase, the BPM analyst needs to identify who must fully
participate in the Process Improvement and Discovery Workshops (PIDW). Of the many roles in a
BPM project, which roles must fully participate?
A. Process Owner, Subject Matter Expert
B. Technical Consultant, Process Owner, BPM Developer
C. Technical Consultant, Process Owner, Project Manager
D. Project Manager, Process Owner, Subject Matter Expert
Answer: A

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NO.4 A company needs to improve their hiring process and hired a BPM analyst to map the current
state. During the discovery session, the business subject matter experts (SMEs) indicate to the BPM
analyst that the hiring request is reviewed by both the human resource admin and the human
resource manager. How should the BPM analyst document the participant role for this activity?
A. Assign the admin as the participant since the admin is paid less.
B. Assign the manager as the participant since the admin reports to the manager.
C. Break the "Review" task into separate tasks and define who does what.
D. Pick either the admin or the manager and assign the "Review" task to that role.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A BPM analyst is creating a process model for requesting a renovation permit. The BPM
analyst is using the following description of the first activity:
"One of our municipal office clerks receives a paper permit application from the local resident, an
applicant. The clerk first looks up the resident's name and address in our system, then enters the
information from the paper application into the system, and assigns a temporary permit number to
the application. When the application entry is complete, the clerk sends it to a manager to assign it
to an adjudicator."
Which name should the BPM analyst use for the first task that accurately describes the activity and
follows recommended naming conventions?
A. Application Entry
B. Create Application
C. Clerk Receive and Enter Application
D. Lookup name, create application, assign number, and send it to the manager
Answer: B

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NO.6 A company needs to improve their hiring process and hired a BPM analyst to map the current
state. What is the first thing the BPM analyst should do while constructing a discovery map? Identify
the:
A. Value-Add activities.
B. sub processes within the hiring process.
C. start and end points of the hiring process.
D. activity where the maximum problems lie.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A BPM analyst needs to make a change to the connections in the following process diagram.
The order of activities needs to be changed so that "Grind Beans" is followed by "Brew Coffee".
"Heat Milk" will come last after "Brew Coffee".
How should the BPM analyst make this change to the connection?
A. Click on the "Brew Coffee" activity and drag it onto the connection between "Grind Beans" and
"Heat Milk"
B. Click on the "Grind Beans" activity and drag it onto the connection between "Heat Milk" and
"Brew Coffee"
C. Click on the connection between "Heat Milk" and "Brew Coffee" and drag the connection arrow
to "Grind Beans"
D. Click on the connection between "Grind Beans" and "Heat Milk" and drag the connection arrow
to "Brew Coffee".
Answer: A

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NO.8 A BPM analyst has modeled the following process. However, after the "Extract Data" and
"Send data use case template to client", the client has stated that "Complete data scenarios" should
be done.
How should the BPM analyst adjust the process?
A. Join A and B
B. Insert join before A, and move B after A
C. Insert Join before B, and move A after B
D. Move B before A, and insert a join after A
Answer: B

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Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud for Social Business Technical Mastery Test v4
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Exam Code: C2140-047
Exam Name: Rational System Architect: BPMN Emphasis
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NO.1 Which basic BPMN model describes processes that are internal to a specific
organization?
A. Native
B. Private
C. Internal
D. Intrinsic
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which type of diagram models the ends and means of an organization's strategic plan?
A. Business Plan Diagram
B. Business Process Diagram
C. Functional Process Diagram
D. Enterprise Direction Diagram
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which three elements are included in a complete enterprise? (Select three.)
A. traceability to the goals and objectives of the organization
B. descriptions of the components that make up the organization
C. technology and process standards for deployment and maintenance
D. historical data that contributed to the current state of the organization
Answer: ABC

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NO.4 Which two benefits are provided by modeling the enterprise architecture of an
organization? (Select
two.)
A. It resolves conflicts with different processes.
B. It identifies gaps and overlaps among IT assets.
C. It determines the objectives and goals of the organization.
D. It shows the extent to which the enterprise is aligned with its strategy.
Answer: BD

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NO.5 Which three enterprise architecture frameworks are supported by Rational System
Architect? (Select
three.)
A. NAF
B. TAFIM
C. MODAF
D. DoDAF
E. AGATE
Answer: ACD

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NO.6 Which two System Architect functions can be used to copy selected diagrams and/or
data definitions
from one project encyclopedia into another? (Select two.)
A. Data Import
B. File Export/Import
C. Encyclopedia Merge
D. Encyclopedia Extract
E. Encyclopedia Transfer
Answer: CD

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NO.7 Which type of diagram enables you to graphically model the goals and objectives of an
organization
along with the strategies and tactics devised to achieve those goals?
A. Business Concept Diagram
B. Business Process Diagram
C. Enterprise Direction Diagram
D. Business Process Hierarchy
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which statement best describes the purpose of Business Process Modeling Notation
(BPMN)?
A. It provides a graphical notation for diagramming business processes.
B. It defines a standard format for determining the processes that take place within an
organization.
C. It describes a methodology for describing relationships between entities and their business
processes.
D. It provides a textual and graphical methodology for modeling the current and future state
of business
and communication processes.
Answer: A

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NO.1 If a response plan is applied to an existing work order, which two fields will be overwritten on
the work order by the response plan if defined? (Choose two.)
A. Priority
B. Vendor
C. Customer
D. Owner Group
E. Service Group
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 What is the purpose of selecting the Known Error check box?
A. It copies the problem summary and details to a new Bulletin Board Message for all users to see.
B. It enables the New Row button on the Related Records tab so additional records can be linked to
the problem.
C. It adds the problem to the collection of known errors that service desk agents use to provide
quick resolution to related problems.
D. It removes the current problem from the list being worked by a problem analyst because it is
already being worked with another record.
Answer: C

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NO.3 In IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5, which two calendar types are available to be used with
Service Level Agreements in the Service Level Agreement application? (Choose two.)
A. Time Calendar
B. Custom Calendar
C. Frequency Calendar
D. Applies To Calendar
E. Calculation Calendar
Answer: D,E

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NO.4 The Weight field is used in the calculation of which option when working with questions for
surveys?
A. survey reports
B. user responses
C. question ratings
D. ordering the questions in a survey
Answer: A

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NO.5 What are two methods to place a new Service Request (SR) under a Service Level Agreement
(SLAy? (Choose two.)
A. The SLA is applied with an action within a workflow.
B. Click the Apply SLA action from the Select Action menu.
C. A ticket template includes a SLAt0 be applied to the SR.
D. A SLA is defined as part of the classification used on the SR.
E. The self-service user selects a valid SLA when creating a new SR.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Under what circumstance should an incident be made global by checking the Global Incident
check box?
A. when an incident is related to a problem
B. when the Affected By person is a Very Important Person
C. when an incident affects many users or causes other issues
D. when an incident needs to be managed by teams in different countries
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which Key Performance Indicator is included with the Service Catalog content?
A. Catalog Orders in Approval
B. Service Catalog Waiting for Approval
C. Catalog Orders in Waiting for Approval
D. Service Catalog Service Requests Waiting for Approval
Answer: D

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NO.8 In IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5, which statement is true about escalation activation for
a specific Service Level Agreement (SLA)?
A. An escalation can be activated if its validation fails.
B. When the status of a SLA is changed, the associated escalation changes status automatically.
C. When the Activate/Deactivate Escalation action is used to activate the escalation, the associated
SLA changes status.
D. When an escalation is created for an active SLA, the Activate/Deactivate Escalation action must
be used to activate the escalation.
Answer: D

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