2014年6月30日星期一

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C-ISR-60Exam Code: C-ISR-60
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NO.1 Which of the following needs to be considered when using the replenishment based inventory
management procedure?
A. Only the unrestricted-use stock type is monitored.
B. Documents are created for all goods movements.
C. Different stock types are monitored.
D. Documents are created for goods receipts only.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following are the IT scenarios powered by SAP NetWeaver Master Data
Management (MDM)?
A. SRM Master Data Management, SRM Master Data Consolidation, SRM Master Data
Harmonization
B. Central Master Data Management, Master Data Consolidation, Master Data Harmonization
C. ERP Master Data Management, ERP Master Data Consolidation, ERP Master Data Harmonization
D. Central Customer Master Data Integration, Customer Rich Product-Content Management, Master
Data Harmonization
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which one of the following price determination elements must be configured so that certain
condition lines of a purchase order will appear on the print output?
A. Access sequence
B. Condition type
C. Calculation schema
D. Schema group
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following are the effects of a goods issue posting for an outbound delivery in SAP
Retail? (Choose three)
A. The stock quantities are updated in the article master.
B. The value change is updated in the stock accounts in Financial Accounting (FI).
C. The status of the outbound delivery is updated in the document flow.
D. The pick quantity in the transfer order is updated.
E. The stock type Blocked stock changes.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 You create a sales order for the wholesale distribution chain. In the pricing analysis you notice
that the customer discount you have just created has not been included.
Which of the following settings made in sales price determination in SAP Retail might be the cause
of this? (Choose two)
A. The determined pricing procedure does not contain the new condition type Customer discount.
B. The condition record for your new customer discount was created for the wrong distribution
chain.
C. A validity date has been defined in the access sequence that is assigned to the condition type
Customer discount.
D. The condition record for the customer discount is set as: cannot be changed manually.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Where in the Merchandise Category Hierarchy would you find a Reference Article?
A. Any Merchandise Category Hierarchy Level
B. Merchandise Category
C. Merchandise Category Hierarchy Top Level
D. Merchandise Category Hierarchy Level and Merchandise Category
Answer: B

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NO.7 Where is the supplementary calculation schema assigned?
A. Condition type
B. Calculation schema
C. Access sequence
D. Schema group
Answer: A

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NO.8 For which of the following key figures can you maintain plan data in a purchasing list in SAP
Retail? (Choose three)
A. Stock transfer
B. Initial buy fix
C. Initial buy variable
D. Putaway
E. Allocation table
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.1 When you make a change to an asset, at what point does the planned depreciation change in
Asset Accounting?
A. After a posting to a fixed asset
B. After depreciation is run and posted to the general ledger
C. After depreciation is run without being posted
D. After depreciation is run and posted to the fixed assets ledger
Answer: A

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NO.2 During the preparation phase, you create a project charter and define project standards and
procedures. These elements give the project manager the authority to conduct a project within
scope, quality, time, and cost and resource constraints.
Which approach would you recommend for scope change requests?
A. Since the project is a fixed scope project, reject all scope change requests.
B. Only accept scope change requests after integration and acceptance tests.
C. Collect scope change requests and hand them over to development immediately.
D. Document scope change requests according to the change requests plan and decide on
realization.
Answer: D

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6. Which components are part of the SAP Business All-in-One solutions? (Choose three)
A. Preconfigured business processes
B. Help portal
C. NetWeaver Business Client
D. Documentation and training material
E. GuiXT
Answer: A,C,D

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7. How do you use the Solution Builder to package your own solution? (Choose two)
A. Add a Customizing step to your building blocks using a report.
B. Use solution builder to automatically transfer a solution into a new scenario map.
C. Export the structure of your solution into an xml file.
D. Create building blocks that contain your delta settings.
Answer: C,D

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8. The ASAP Focus Methodology defines a proposal framework as an accelerator to help you
produce the proposal document during the evaluation phase.
Which document is part of the proposal framework?
A. Sales presentations
B. Marketing collateral
C. Customer qualification questionnaire
D. Solution scope document
Answer: D

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9. Which "additional" planning method is available for internal orders if you have information
about sources of supply and vendors' prices based on quantities?
A. Unit cost planning
B. Activity input planning
C. Overall planning
D. Primary cost planning
Answer: A

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10. Along with SAP NetWeaver Business Client (NWBC), SAP provides a NWBC demo kit for
partners. This contains the welcome page and workbenches to enhance the user interface.
What are the required steps to install and run the NWBC demo kit? (Choose three)
A. Configure the user interface according to your specific needs.
B. Import the transport request from the NWBC demo kit into your system.
C. Download the NWBC demo kit from the SAP Help Portal under alias /bestpractices.
D. Download the NWBC demo kit from the SAP Service Portal under alias /bestpractices.
E. Order the NWBC demo kit per OSS message with reference to SAP Note 1040010.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 When a document is posted, a number is assigned to that document.
Where does this number come from?
A. Document source
B. Document area
C. Document type
D. Posting key
Answer: C

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NO.4 SAP Best Practices are preconfigured packages that can be used for different purposes in
various phases of an implementation project.
Why would you set up a system by activating an SAP Best Practices package? (Choose two)
A. To introduce new functions that are not offered in the Business Suite
B. To accelerate the implementation of SAP applications
C. To quickly set up a prototype system for specification workshops, trainings, and demos
D. To correct settings in a productive system
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 Which currency types are available for budgeting on internal orders? (Choose three)
A. Controlling area currency
B. Object currency
C. Company code currency
D. Freely-definable currency
E. Transaction currency
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.1 A customer asks you to configure an average calculation rule for hourly workers. The rule
should
determine an average daily overtime rate derived from all overtime earned during the previous
three months. Any retroactive changes in pay should be included.
What do you have to include in the configuration of the rule? (Choose three.)
A. Final processing rule
B. Cumulation rule
C. Time wage type selection rule
D. Adjustment rule
E. Processing class 01 rule
Answer: A,B,D

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5. A customer is concerned that WPBP splits on the IT input table may lead to overpayments.
What explanations do you provide to address their concerns? (Choose two.)
A. WPBP splits occur when an employee enters or leaves the company during a pay period. They
are used to prorate their pay accordingly.
B. WPBP splits occur when an employee's organizational assignment changes. They are used to
allocate personnel costs to the correct cost center.
C. WPBP splits occur when an employee's address changes during a pay period. They are used
to allocate benefit deductions to the correct provider.
D. WPBP splits occur when an employee's bank information changes during a pay period. They
are used to allocate payments to the correct account.
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Your customer wants to automate off-cycle payroll tasks such as printing forms, execution of
posting run, and printing checks.
Which tool is best suited for this?
A. Payroll control record
B. Off-Cycle Workbench
C. HR Process Workbench
D. Interface Toolbox
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer wants to use the same wage type for a special payment such as hazardous pay and
have the rate vary by personnel area.
What do you have to configure?
A. Modif W and the table V_T539J (Base wage type valuation)
B. Modif 4 and the table V_T510S (Time wage type selection)
C. Modif 2 and the table V_T510J (Constant valuations)
D. Modif A and the table V_T554C (Absence valuation)
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer continues to pay some employees for a period of time after they are terminated.
These
employees should also be processed in retro calculation runs.
What do you recommend?
A. Terminate the employee with the future date up to which you want to continue regular
processing and use the payroll driver to force any retro runs.
B. Terminate the employee and enter the date up to which you want to continue processing payroll
in the Accounted to field on IT0003.
C. Terminate the employee and enter the date up to which you want to continue processing payroll
in the Run Payroll up to field on IT0003.
D. Terminate the employee with the future date up to which you want to continue payroll
processing so they are included in regular and retro runs.
Answer: C

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C-TPLM30-66Exam Code: C-TPLM30-66
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NO.1 A BEx Analyzer workbook can be based on which of the following? (Choose three)
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C. An InfoProvider
D. A BEx Report created with the Report Designer
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 Which of the following statements best describe the benefit of using data bursting as a
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A. Allows you to broadcast report results to large numbers of non-SAP users via email.
B. Provides an easy way to improve the performance of all web-based BEx reports.
C. Provides an effective way to manage security across all BEx reports.
D. Allows you to broadcast user-specific results based on master data.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 One of your customers needs to know the BEx Broadcaster options for sending static
snap-shots
of data. What would you tell them? (Choose three)
A. For workbooks, send as E-Mail as a Zip File.
B. For a web template, send as 'Independent HTML File'.
C. For a web template, send as 'HTML with Separate MIME Files' as a Zip File.
D. For a web template, send as an 'Online Link'.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 If two queries are inserted into the same worksheet in a workbook, which of the following is
a potential conflict?
A. The results for one query could affect the results for the other query.
B. The first query on the worksheet is the only query accessible by the user.
C. If the user drills down in the first query, the query result could possibly extend into the area
occupied by the second query.
D. The security settings of the first query would override the security settings of the second
query.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Your client is interested in the various formats used to distribute BI information. Which of
the
following formats are available? (Choose three)
A. Precalculated XML file with separate MIME files.
B. Precalculated BEx Analyzer Workbooks.
C. Precalculated MHTML file.
D. Online links to current data.
E. Precalculated DOC file with separate MIME files.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.6 Valid BI source objects for the BEx Broadcaster include: (Choose three)
A. Queries
B. iViews
C. Workbooks
D. Value Sets E. Reports created with the Report Designer
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.7 Valid BEx Broadcaster distribution types include: (Choose two)
A. Archive object
B. Email
C. CSV file
D. Printer
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Organizations that are 'data rich, but information poor' might gain from the business
knowledge
discovered through data mining. Which of the following are true regarding data mining? (Choose
three)
A. Clustering is a data mining method.
B. Data mining is an analytical approach that looks for hidden information patterns in large
databases.
C. Data mining can easily analyze historical information, but is unable to predict future trends.
D. Regression analysis is a data mining method.
E. ETL (Extraction, Transformation and Loading) is a data mining method.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.1 What is needed to ensure a check field is verified against the referred key field of the check table?
A.same da type only is required for check field and referenced field
B.all key fields MUST have domain equality between check table and foreign key table
C.same domain is required for check field and referenced field
D.same da element is required for check field and referenced field
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following types of enhancements do not need to be assigned to an enhancement project?
(More than one answer is correct)
A.Keyword
B.Field exit
C.Menu exit
D.Screen
E.Program exit
Answer: A, B

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NO.3 If you are building a bstrip to be handled at the presention level. What function type should be
assigned to the b title?
A.P
B.T
C.Blank
D.F
E.E
Answer: A, B

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NO.4 What message type does not implicitly trigger dabase commits for the table updates specified in your
program?
A.I type MESSAGE stement
B.A type MESSAGE stement
C.E type MESSAGE stement
D.W type MESSAGE stement
E.S type MESSAGE stement
Answer: B

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NO.5 In PBO, what field conins the tol number of lines in table control tc_flight
A.TC_FLIGHT_LINES
B.SY-DYNNR
C.SY-STEPL
D.TC_FLIGHT-TOL_LINES
Answer: A

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NO.6 Mark the Program Attribute that is used to define a Dialogue Program?
A.R
B.D
C.1
D.M
Answer: D

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NO.7 Your screen has a table control defined to it. In the PAI, what does the SY-LOOPC system variatable
conin?
A.Number of table control lines
B.Loop Counter
C.Number of filled lines
Answer: C

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NO.8 If you do not SUPPRESS DIALOG in a dynpro before you LEAVE TO LIST-PROCESSING, the following
Mill happen (More than one answer is correct)
A.The screen will be displayed with the report that was built, but the gui-stus will be the one fromo the
previous screen
B.The report will be displayed on the screen only after the user presses the enter key
C.The previous screen (calling screen) will be redisplayed
D.The screen will be displayed, and will be empty
Answer: B, D

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Exam Name: SAP Certified Development Associate - Process Integration with SAP NetWeaver 7.31
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NO.1 Which Web-services-related protocol is supported by SAP NetWeaver PI 7.31?
A. Web Services Description Language (WSDL)
B. WS-Reliable Messaging (WS-RM)
C. Representational state transfer (REST)
D. Open Data Protocol (OData)
Answer: B

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NO.2 The Advanced Adapter Engine is installed as a component on the Integration Server.
When would you install the non-central Advanced Adapter Engine?
A. When a firewall between the business system and the Integration Server prevents them from
communicating directly
B. When the business department requires Knowledge Management on a separate system
C. When you want to use cross-component business process management (ccBPM) in the Advanced
Adapter Engine
D. When you want to use the advanced monitoring capabilities of the Integration Engine
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which conversion parameters are available in the SOAP adapter?(Choose two)
A. Keep Headers
B. Do Not Use SOAP Envelope
C. Sync/Async Bridge
D. File Content Conversion
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 In which cases do you need to use ccBPM processes?(Choose two)
A. When collecting messages
B. When querying databases
C. When using a synchronous/asynchronous bridge
D. When using scenarios that are based on an AEX installation
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 You want to build an operation mapping using multiple mapping programs per direction.
Which restrictions do you have to consider?
A. The output of each mapping program must fit the target message type.
B. The mapping programs are processed in the specified sequence from top to bottom.
C. The checkbox must be enabled in interface determination to preserve the sequence during the
runtime.
D. All the mapping programs have to belong to the same namespace.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components use Enterprise Services
Repository?(Choose two)
A. SAP NetWeaver Business Warehouse
B. SAP NetWeaver Portal
C. SAP NetWeaver Process Integration
D. SAP NetWeaver Mobile
E. SAP NetWeaver Developer Studio
Answer: C,E

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NO.7 Which of the following are characteristics of enterprise services?(Choose two)
A. They are based on global data types.
B. They are semantically harmonized across applications.
C. They can be easily used as imported archive objects.
D. They can be used to extend BAPIs.
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Which step types can be used as the first step in an integration process?
A. Block
B. Receive
C. Wait
D. Send
Answer: B

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2014年6月29日星期日

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NO.1 An ESXi 5.x host displays a warning icon in the vSphere console and its summary page lists a
configuration issue "SSH for the host has been enabled." What are two ways to clear this warning?
(Choose two.)
A. Using the Security Profile pane of the Configuration tab in the vSphere Client
B. Using the Direct Console User Interface (DCUI)
C. Using the Advanced Settings pane of the Configuration tab in the vSphere Client
D. Using the Networking pane of the Configuration tab in the vSphere Client
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.3 An administrator selects the Profile Compliance tab of a vSphere cluster, then selects Check
Compliance Now. Which features requirements are not checked by this?
A. vMotion
B. Fault Tolerance
C. DRS
D. Host Profiles
Answer: D

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10. An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp. Which three options are
available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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11. An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine
and finds that the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be
protected? (Choose two.)
A. Stopped - Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM - The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual
machine and is not protected
C. Need Primary VM - The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine
cannot be generated.
D. Disabled - Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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12. Which VMware solution uses the security of a vSphere implementation and provides
linked-clone technology to virtual desktops?
A. VMware ACE
B. VMware View
C. VMware Workstation
D. VMware ThinApp
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Reference: http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/VMware-View-4-Composer-DS-EN.pdf (page 1, last
paragraph)
13. An administrator is working to update the hosts and virtual machines in a vSphere 5.x
deployment using Update Manager Baselines.
Other than host patches, which three items require a separate procedure or process to update?
(Choose three.)
A. Operating system patches
B. Virtual Appliance updates
C. Virtual Machine Virtual Hardware upgrades
D. VMware Tools on machines without VMware Tools already installed
E. Application patches within the virtual machine
Answer: A,D,E

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14. An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA).
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C,D

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Explanation:
Understanding Storage Capabilities
A storage capability outlines the quality of service that a storage system can deliver.
It is a guarantee that the storage system can provide a specific set of characteristics for capacity,
performance, availability, redundancy, and so on.
If a storage system uses Storage APIs - Storage Awareness, it informs vCenter Server that it can
guarantee a specific set of storage features by presenting them as a storage capability. vCenter
Server recognizes the capability and adds it to the list of storage capabilities in the Manage Storage
Capabilities dialog box. Such storage capabilities are system-defined. vCenter Server assigns the
system-defined storage capability to each datastore that you create from that storage system.
NOTE:
Because multiple system capabilities for a datastore are not supported, a datastore that spans
several extents assumes the system capability of only one of its extents.
You can create user-defined storage capabilities and associate them with datastores.
You should associate the same user-defined capability with datastores that guarantee the same
level of storage capabilities. You can associate a user-defined capability with a datastore that already
has a system-defined capability. A datastore can have only one system-defined and only one
userdefined capability at a time.
15. An administrator has created a virtual machine that will be accessed from a public kiosk.
Management has requested that the virtual machine be reset to a known state once a week or on
demand if requested.
Which method is the simplest way to meet this requirement?
A. Configure the storage array to be vSphere aware and script routine array snapshot restores of the
datastore.
B. Implement a 3rd party imaging server and PXE boot the virtual machine off a static image.
C. Set the VMDKs of the virtual machine to be Independent-Nonpersistent and schedule restarts of
the virtual machine.
D. Create Nonpersistent disks for the virtual machine and set the guest OS to reboot once a week.
Answer: C

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16. Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on
the datastore alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing).
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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Explanation:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&externa
lId=1020651
http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-50/topic/com.vmware.vsphere.troubleshooting.doc_50/GUID38F
95285-DB4F-462F-AFD7-0F4D812B085F.html
17. An administrator has deployed vCenter Data Recovery and wants the largest possible
de-duplication store. Which three storage options can be used? (Choose three.)
A. Two CIFS shares
B. Two RDMs on a FCP array
C. One NFS mount on the ESXi host and one RDMs on an iSCSI array
D. One CIFS share and one FCP RDM
E. Two NFS mounts on the ESXi host
Answer: B,C,E

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18. Which two conditions must exist on all hosts in the cluster if Enhanced vMotion
Compatibility (EVC) is used? (Choose two.)
A. The cluster must be enabled for DRS.
B. All hosts in the cluster must be running ESX/ESXi 3.5 Update 2 or later.
C. All hosts in the cluster must have hardware virtualization support enabled.
D. The cluster must be enabled for HA.
Answer: B,C

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19. What are three true statements about quiescing virtual machine snapshots? (Choose three.)
A. vSphere snapshot quiescing only occurs on Windows guest OSes.
B. The quiescing operation is automatic with any snapshot.
C. The quiescing operation varies by guest OS.
D. Quiescing should occur before array-based snapshots to ensure consistency.
E. VMware Tools is required for quiescing to be successful.
Answer: C,D,E

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20. An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service. What three options
are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A,B,C

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21. An administrator takes a vSphere snapshot of a virtual machine and applies an OS update.
After confirming the update the administrator cannot enable Fault Tolerance on the virtual machine
and suspects there are snapshots that have not been consolidated.
Which two operations can the administrator perform to verify consolidation is needed? (Choose
two.)
A. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machines tab of the host.
B. Browse the datastore containing the vmdk files and look for files with the "-delta.vmdk"
extension.
C. Expose the Needs Consolidation column in the virtual machine summary tab.
D. Select and run the vSphere Cluster HealthCheck from the right-click menu of the cluster object.
Answer: A,B

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22. An administrator is enabling Enhanced vMotion Compatibility (EVC) in a DRS cluster. The
administrator wants only hosts with the newest Intel processors added to the cluster.
Which setting satisfies this requirement?
A. The baseline with the most CPUs listed
B. The baseline with the fewest CPUs listed
C. Any baseline that contains Future Intel processors
D. Create a new baseline and add only the latest processor family
Answer: D

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Reference:
http://www.virtualizationadmin.com/articles-tutorials/vmware-esx-and-vspherearticles/vmotion-dr
s-high-availability/enhanced-vmotion-compatibility-primer.html (8th para)
23. Which two conditions will prevent a virtual machine from being successfully migrated using
Storage vMotion? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine has an RDM.
B. The virtual machine has Fault Tolerance enabled.
C. The virtual machine is running on a vSphere 5.x Standard host.
D. The virtual machine has a disk stored on an NFS datastore.
Answer: B,C

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24. An administrator is using Update Manager 5.x to update virtual appliances in a vSphere
environment. The environment is using the vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA).
What would cause the remediation to fail?
A. Updating of the appliance can only be done if the vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA) has
been put into Maintenance Mode.
B. Remediation must be configured on the Appliance Administration page before use.
C. Remediation of the vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA) with Update Manager is not
supported.
D. Remediation requires the hosts to be connected to vCenter using an IPv4 address.
Answer: C

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25. ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are
running a 10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have
been deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual
machine will not power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on
the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from
this template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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Explanation:
If you make reservations for your virtual machine's that are equal to the amount of RAM assigned to
them, swapping and page sharing does not occur.
You can over commit pretty heavily if you are comfortable with poorer performance.
If you do not set reservations, ESX host creates a .vswp file equal to the difference between the
amount of physical memory assigned to the virtual machine and the reservation it has.
By default, memory reservations are set to 0. If you have a virtual machine with 2GB of memory
without a reservation, it creates a 2GB .vswp file when it is powered on.
The virtual machine starts using the .vswp file if the server is out of physical RAM. If you set a 1GB
reservation, it creates a 1GB .vswp file.
The .vswp files are what allows for memory overcommitment.

NO.4 An administrator has recently upgraded their Update Manager infrastructure to vSphere 5.x.
Several hosts and virtual machines have not been upgraded yet.
Which vSphere component when upgraded will have the least impact to the existing environment?
A. Virtual Machine Hardware
B. ESX Hosts
C. VMFS datastores
D. VMware Tools
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.x host? (Choose
two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a
performance benefit? (Choose two.)
A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 An administrator is troubleshooting an ESXi 5.x host and needs to export diagnostic
information. The host is currently managed by a vCenter Server instance.
Which two ways can the information be gathered using the vSphere Client? (Choose two.)
A. Select Home. Under Administration, click System Logs and click the Export System Logs button.
Select the affected ESXi host. Select Select All. Select a location and click Finish.
B. In the vSphere Client, select the affected ESXi host. Right-click the host and select Export
Diagnostic Data. Select a location and click OK.
C. Log in to the ESXi host locally, Select Export System Logs.
D. In the vSphere Client, select the affected ESXi host. Select File, Export and Export System Logs.
Select Select All. Select a location and click Finish.
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning
indicates that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for
memory. Which action can be taken to resolve this problem?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The Memory Resources panel lets you allocate memory resources for a virtual machine and specify
reservations, limits, and shares. Symbolic values Low, Normal, High, and Custom are compared to
the sum of all shares of all virtual machines on the server and, on an ESX host, the service console.
By decreasing the memory share of a particular system, it receives less memory out of the total
available memory.

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NO.1 You are the technical designer for a vSphere platform transformation project. After conducting
SME interviews and using various platform information-gathering methods, you have created a
high-level design document. This document specifies the following: Requirements: R1. The solution
must not have a single point of failure. R2. Production applications must not have an outage of
more than 10 seconds. R3. Data must be based in the UK. R4. There is a 7-year retention policy for
contracts. R5. Applications should support existing and developing workloads for the next 3 years'
growth. Spec of servers: Web 1 vCPU, 2 GB RAM, 100 GB storage App 1 vCPU, 4 GB RAM, 100 Gb
storage DB 2 vCPU, 16 GB RAM, 750 Gb storage At a late stage in the software development life
cycle of a production application developed in- house, an unfortunate issue was identified when the
application was deployed to the production vSphere cluster. The production core stacked switch has
capacity issues, and this is having a serious impact on all applications for which the switch is
providing network services. Within the test system, the application works as intended in the single
test VLAN and with a single-host configuration. Which of the following could be tried to help in this
situation, from a vSphere perspective? (Choose two)
A. Redevelop the application for a virtual platform
B. Place the application into a single-vApp network
C. Add DRS rules to keep network traffic within the same host, where possible
D. Configure network I/O control
Answer: B,D

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Explanation:
If you limit the application traffic to a specific dedicated network (that is, a separate VLAN) and
using enforced DRS affinity rules, the application traffic will not traverse the ESXi host's physical
network interfaces. This will ensure that the impact of the application is minimized, while also
ensuring that the application itself is not limited. The application servers already have vCPU settings.
This suggests that the system has already being virtualized in both types of environments. Network
I/O control could be useful in the event of contention, but the role of a designer would be to plan to
prevent contention where possible;
other options would be more beneficial.
In addition, Requirement 5 specifies that the system should work with workloads over the next 3
years. Network I/O control would suggest contention very early in the platform history. Chapter 4,
NetWork - Logical and Physical Design to allow applications to flow
3. Based on the information in the high-level design extract for question 2, which type of data
store would be required?
A. VMFS
B. NFS
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Because fault tolerance would be the only VMware technology that would meet the technical
requirements, VMFS is the only choice here. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical
Approaches
4. A project requirement
A. must be achieved
B. can be set as aspirational but may never be achieved
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A project requirement is a specific deliverable that the business has said must be provided at the
end of a project. It must always be achieved. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical
Approaches
5. The vCenter database is powered off ungracefully, along with a three cluster nodes in a
separate cluster. Will the failed existing ESXi host nodes restart correctly using Auto Deploy?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Auto Deploy enables an untrained IT professional to increase capacity while ensuring
quality and consistency within a cluster. However, there is a dependency on the
vCenter server and Auto Deploy server roles at different times. In this case, the ESXi
hosts have already booted successfully. This means that all subsequent reboots will be
controlled using configuration from the Auto Deploy server, not vCenter. If the
vCenter database is impacted, the ESXi hosts will automatically restore. Even in the
event of no vCenter availability, hosts will use the last-known copy of a distributed
switch or the configured vSphere switch.
Chapter X, Putting it all together
6. A logical diagram shows vendor-specific information.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A logical diagram shows the high-level components of a design or platform.
It may include descriptions such as data flow and entity relationships. However, it does not show
specific vendors (such as Dell or HP).
Chapter 2, Creating the design
7. You are a VMware architect employed to design and build application environments and the
underlying platform for a software development company.
The company is using a "devops" approach and has engaged with you at the beginning of the first
planning meeting/pre-sprint.
The software has yet to be written. However, you have some high-level specifications that are
subject to change at each of the early meetings.
The is more logical for virtual machine sizing.
A. predictive sizing approach based on current software
B. adaptive sizing approach
Answer: B

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Explanation:
There are two types of scaling approaches in virtual platforms:
adaptive and predictive. Both approaches are usable; however, a designer must work out which is
the best approach for each project. The adaptive approach to guest virtual machine design is a
major advantage that virtualization technology brings to a datacenter. It allows a guest virtual
machine to be created initially on a few metrics or high-level requirements (such as a limited budget)
and scaled (that is, grown, not shrunk) through the virtual machine life cycle. In many cases, this
scaling can be performed hot/live without outage/downtime to the running applications. The
predictive approach, on the other hand, requires more planning and research, and you must know
the metrics before deployment. The advantage here is that once the virtual machine has been
deployed, only application maintenance is required. The application requirements are known.
Chapter 5, Design Approaches
8. You are working on a hybrid cloud project, where production applications (yet to be fully
developed) are to be deployed. Which of the following is a project requirement?
A. The production data must be in the UK at all times.
B. The hosting partner provides sufficient resources without overcommitment to support
application load.
C. The hosting provider meets uptime expectations.
D. The development team provides the software on time.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A requirement is a definable and measurable project item. It must be part of the delivery, and its
removal cannot be justified. Chapter 2, Definitions of Key Terms
9. Storage DRS is enabled by default.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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10. Based on the information in the high-level design extract from question 2, what storage
protocol is unsuitable?
A. NFS
B. iSCSI
C. FC
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The requirements state that the application uptime requirements would not be met if using vSphere
HA alone. vSphere HA would
invoke a restart of guest virtual machines after at least 10 seconds. VMware fault tolerance would
meet the uptime
requirements; a failover would result in zero downtime of the application. This technology can be
used only with VMFS; therefore, NFS cannot be used in this design. Chapter 4, NetWork - Logical
and Physical Design to allow applications to flow
11. A logical design can contain which of the following? (Choose three)
A. BIOS settings
B. Data flow
C. Key component relationships
D. High-level diagrams
E. Server host names
Answer: B,C,D

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Explanation:
A logical diagram can be used to show service components and how they relate to each other. A
logical diagram is high level in nature and is independent of the hardware used for a solution.
Chapter 2, Presenting the Data Gathered
12. A best practice can change over time.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A best practice is based on experience with delivering a solution. A new product will
have limited best-practice information except for vendor- or vendor-partner-based
recommendations.
The longer a technology is used in a community, the more
potential success; therefore, best practices can change over time.
Chapter 6, Validation, Thoughts, and Processes
13. When designing a storage platform, which of the following should be considered as part of
the overall design?
A. Capacity
B. I/O requirements of the applications to be supported
C. Disk latency tolerance
D. Growth rate
E. All of the above
Answer: E

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Explanation:
A storage platform logical design requires in-depth analysis of factors that can affect applications.In
the case of storage, aspects that relate to the physical layer-such as the amount of usable space
required for services;
the size, number, and speed of disks; and how fast the data is being produced-could have a
substantial impact to the storage platform. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical
Approaches
14. Only a software vendor develops a standard process or configuration.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A best practice is based on experience with delivering a solution. A new product will have limited
best-practice information except for vendor- or vendor-partner-based recommendations.
The longer a technology is used in a community, the more potential success; therefore, best
practices may be recommended by non-vendor-related people. It is up to a designer to validate this
information rather than ignore it straightaway. Chapter 6, Validation, Thoughts, and Processes
15. Which of the following vSphere cluster technologies would meet the application
requirements specified in the high-level design extract for question 2?
A. FT
B. HA
Answer: A

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Explanation:
vSphere HA would need to wait at least 10 seconds before a restart would be possible. This would
not meet requirements. In the event of a restart, it could be possible to be without the application
feed database for about 15 minutes. VMware FT would enable the service to be provided without
additional redevelopment. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical Approaches

NO.2 Storage DRS can be enabled and can balance I/O levels based on
A. real-time stats
B. historical stats
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Storage DRS can balance I/O by using storage vMotion. This would be based on historical values for
a period of time. Storage DRS would make decisions based on these figures. If the system were
using realtime stats, the machines could potentially migrate a lot more. This could have an effect on
the latency figures for some systems. The larger historical sampling in storage DRS allows the system
to make a decision with limited risk of impacting I/O-unlike moving a virtual machine over and over
again. Chapter 4, Storage Design - The Logical & Physical Approaches

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NO.1 What are three supported Database Servers for VMware View Composer in a VMware View 5
environment? (Choose three.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express with vCenter Server 4.1 U1
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express with vCenter Server 5.0
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 SP3 Standard with vCenter Server 5.0
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2 Express with vCenter 4.0 U3
E. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2 Express with vCenter Server 5.0
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.2 An administrator is adding a replicated instance of View Connection Server to the environment silently.
Which MSI property would be used to identify the instance being replicated?
A. ADAM_PRIMARY_INSTANCE
B. ADAM_PRIMARY_NAME
C. VDM_INSTANCE_NAME
D. VDM_SERVER_INSTANCE
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which TCP port must be open on the firewall of the View Transfer Server?
A. 443
B. 21
C. 389
D. 4172
Answer: A

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NO.4 An Administrator is upgrading to View Connection Server 5.x from a previous release.
Which component is omitted from installation automatically during an upgrade?
A. VMware Message Bus Component
B. VMware Script Host
C. VMware PCoIP Secure Gateway
D. VMware VDMDS
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two operating systems are supported for a View Transfer Server installation? (Choose two.)
A. Windows Server 2008 32-bit
B. Windows Server 2003 R2 SP2 32-bit
C. Windows Server 2003 SP2 64-bit
D. Windows Server 2008 R2 64-bit
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Which three items must be configured prior to installing a View Security Server? (Choose three.)
A. Connection Server
B. Security Server External URL
C. Security Server Firewall Exceptions
D. Security Server Pairing Password
E. Security Server Static IP address
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 Which two operating systems are supported for the View Connection Server? (Choose two.)
A. Windows Server 2003 R2 64-bit Standard or Enterprise
B. Windows Server 2003 R2 32-bit Standard or Enterprise
C. Windows Server 2008 R2 32-bit Standard or Enterprise
D. Windows Server 2008 R2 64-bit Standard or Enterprise
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Which two steps are part of the View Composer installation process? (Choose two.)
A. select the Enable View Composer checkbox in the View Administrator
B. install the View Composer on the vCenter Server system
C. register View Composer service on the Windows system
D. configure ODBC connection to the View Composer database
Answer: B,D

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