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Exam Code: 000-R25
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SurePOS 700 Series Models 743 and 784 Technical Mastery )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which three systems management capabilities are supported on the SurePOS x43 and x84 models.?
(Choose three.)
A. Wake on LAN (WOL)
B. Wake on WiFi (WOW)
C. Wake on Touch (WOT)
D. Remote Deployment Manager (RDM)
E. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 On which model is an 80GB hard disk drive and a CD/DVD standard?
A. S83
B. C83
C. S43
D. C43
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which three types of ports are standard on all SurePOS x43 and x84 models? (Choose three.)
A. two VGA ports
B. two PC USB ports
C. two RS-485 ports
D. one parallel port
E. two powered USB ports
F. audio mic-in/line out ports
Answer: A,B,F

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NO.4 The IBM SurePOS x43 point-of-sale (POS) system uses the prefixes "S", "E", and "C" to indicate
specific models. What do these prefixes stand for?
A. "S" refers to the superior model; "E" indicates a model with Windows preloaded; "C" indicates a
customer model.
B. "S" indicates an administrative model; "E" indicates a model with Windows preloaded; "C" indicates a
controller model.
C. "S" refers to the model geared to the supermarket segment; "E" refers to the entry level model; "C"
indicates a customer model.
D. "S" refers to the model geared to the specialty segment; "E" refers to the entry level model; "C"
indicates a controller model.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which statement is true about the location of the two hard disk drives that the SurePOS x43 and x84
accommodate?
A. Both hard disk drives are stacked vertically at the back of the system unit to the left of the power supply.
B. Both hard disk drives are stacked vertically at the right front of the system unit directly behind the drive
bay door.
C. The first hard disk drive is located at the front left of the system and the second drive is located next to
it horizontally (front right).
D. The first hard disk drive is located at the front right of the system directly behind the drive bay door and
the second drive is located at the back of the system unit.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the minimum clearance required around the system unit for proper airflow and cooling?
A. one inch on all sides
B. six inches on all sides
C. two to three inches on all sides
D. four to five inches on all sides
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the standard warranty service type offered for SurePOS x43 and x84 systems?
A. Depot Service
B. Carry in Service
C. IBM On-Site Repair
D. IBM EasyServ Repair
Answer: C

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NO.8 A customer is considering upgrading to SurePOS 784 systems. They need two PCI slots and they are
concerned about PCI compatibility, restrictions, and limitations. What information should a technical
specialist provide this customer? (Choose two.)
A. Full-length PCI feature cards are not supported.
B. The 784 provides support for only two PCI Express slots.
C. PCI slots are only available as a standard feature on the SurePOS 743 models.
D. If a customer has two PCI adapters to migrate forward they will need to select the additional riser
option that provides two PCI slots.
E. There is nothing to worry about, since all SurePOS x43 and x84 models have two PCI slots that will
accommodate full-size and short PCI cards.
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 Light-Path Management consists of which three components? (Choose three.)
A. LEDs
B. remote management
C. service processor
D. USB memory manager
E. uninterruptible power supply (UPS)
F. second hard drive containing diagnostics
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.10 Which component can be replaced without removing the pullout tray?
A. I/O module
B. memory module
C. processor fan
D. hard disk drive
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-270
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Business Process Manager Advanced V7.5, Integration Development )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 56 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 An integration developer has configured a BPEL business process for a customer, as shown below:
Assume that max is greater than min. What should the integration developer take into account when
implementing this for each loop?
A. There must be an array associated with the for each loop.
B. It is possible to exit the loop before Index is equal to max.
C. The values of min and max cannot be changed once the for each activity begins.
D. If the scope inside of the for each activity is set to isolated, then the activities will run sequentially.
Answer: D

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NO.2 An integration developer has configured a business state machine, as shown below:
What behavior will the integration developer observe when executing the flow?
A. If Condition3 is false, then Exit1 will execute after Timeout2 expires.
B. If Condition1 and Condition2 are both true, then a runtime exception will be thrown.
C. If Condition1 is false, then Timeout1 will not be evaluated.
D. If Condition1 and Condition2 are both false, then operation2 will be called by the business state
machine.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A business analyst has made several runtime changes to deployed business rules that were
implemented in IBM Integration Designer (IID). Which task should the integration developer perform so
that the rule group can be imported using IID, and the changes are reflected in the project source?
A. Use the administrative console to export the rule group.
B. Use the Business Rule Manager application to export the rule group.
C. Use the Business Rules widget in Business Space to export the rule group.
D. Use the Business Process Choreographer (BPC) Explorer to export the rule group information.
Answer: A

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NO.4 An integration developer needs to check which Common Event Infrastructure (CEI) events have been
generated for a business process and review the information contained inside each event. Where will the
integration developer find this information?
A. In the Common Base Event browser application.
B. In the monitoring widgets in Business Space.
C. In the administrative console -> Service Integration -> Common Event Infrastructure -> Event Service
D. In the Business Process Choreographer Explorer -> Views tab -> Process Instances -> Events
generated
Answer: A

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NO.5 An integration developer needs to rewrite business rule logic written in Java using a business rule
component. The integration developer has implemented the selector shown in the exhibits below.
What behavior will the integration developer observe with the configured selector?
A. The module will fail to compile because there is no wiring between the selector and the destination
components.
B. The module will fail to compile because the destination of the selector can only be rule logic or decision
table.
C. The runtime exception will be thrown because there is no default component configured.
D. The runtime exception will be thrown if the date when the selector is invoked does not fall in any of the
specified date ranges.
Answer: D

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NO.6 An integration developer has configured a BPEL business process for a customer, as shown below:
What should the integration developer consider when implementing this flow?
A. An Otherwise element must be added to the Choice activity.
B. A Timeout element must be added to the ReceiveChoice activity.
C. It is possible for Snippet1 and Snippet2 to run concurrently in the same instance of the process.
D. If Snippet1 is invoked in an instance of the process, that instance will not receive messages sent to the
Service2 interface.
Answer: D

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NO.7 An integration developer is testing the process shown in the following exhibits.
If the integration developer starts an instance of the ProcessA process with an input of "HELLO", which of
the following strings will the LogSnippet snippet write to System.out?
A. output1=ORIGINAL :: aString=ORIGINAL
B. output1=ORIGINAL :: aString=MODIFIED
C. output1=MODIFIED :: aString=ORIGINAL
D. output1=MODIFIED :: aString=MODIFIED
Answer: C

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NO.8 An integration developer has configured a BPEL business process for a customer, as shown below:
What behavior will the integration developer observe when executing the flow?
A. It is possible for both Snippet2 and Snippet3 to execute.
B. The execution order of the links entering Snippet2 and Snippet3 has no impact on the process flow.
C. The gateway leading into Snippet5 will cause an error because the navigation behavior is not set
correctly.
D. The gateway leading into Snippet4 will cause an error because the link exiting Snippet2 has no
condition.
Answer: C

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NO.9 An integration developer has developed the following business process, as shown in the exhibit: The
invoke activities Invoke1 and Invoke2 are synchronous invocations and execute in a few seconds. A
compensation handler needs to be defined for Snippet2 following a business action from the customer.
The customer considers performance to be a key requirement. How would the integration developer
implement these requirements? The business process needs to be a:
A. long-running process because of the required fault handler.
B. long-running process because of the required compensation handler.
C. microflow because no human tasks are required.
D. microflow for best performance as every invoke activity uses synchronous invocation and executes
quickly.
Answer: B

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NO.10 A client requires that a new BPEL process return a fault message to the requester in case the process
does not complete correctly. The integration developer has added a fault handler to the process to catch
all exceptions. How should the integration developer return the fault message?
A. Use a throw activity of a business fault.
B. Use a reply activity using a standard fault.
C. Use a reply activity using a business fault defined in the interface.
D. Use a rethrow activity in the fault handler on the process scope using a fault defined in the interface.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-780
Exam Name: IBM (IBM PureFlex System Sales V1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A customer is preparing to move their data and applications to a cloud environment. They are going to
use a provider's servers, storage and network resources, but will continue to manage the environment
themselves. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Storage as a Service
B. Software as a Service
C. Infrastructure as a Service
D. Business Process as a Service
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer is looking to deploy applications quickly and more consistently for their user community.
Faster time-to-value of the applications takes out the manual steps and automating delivery. Which
attribute of the PureFlex address this requirement.?
A. Agility
B. Control
C. Efficiency
D. Simplicity
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer needs an infrastructure for AIX and Windows application servers with supporting storage
and networking. The customer is not concerned about high availability. Which of the following is the
minimal solution that meets this need?
A. PureFlex Express
B. PureFlex Standard
C. PureFlex Enterprise
D. Flex BTO
Answer: A

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NO.4 A PureFlex sales professional needs to select the best PureFlex Fibre Channel switch and mezzanine
card options for connecting a new PureFlex solution to an existing SAN and storage system. Which of the
following are the best two resources for this need?
A. Techline or Distributor
B. Competeline or Supportline
C. Briefing Center or Competeline
D. Distributor or Supportline
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following PureFlex attributes leverages the expertise and best practices from the industry
to intelligently tune and manage environments and leverages cloud while ensuring mission critical
reliability?
A. Agility
B. Control
C. Efficiency
D. Simplicity
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 00M-638
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Lotus Notes & Domino Sales Mastery Test v2)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 46 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Recipient indicators in Notes mail enhances productivity by providing users with what information?
A. The indicate how many people have received an email.
B. The indicate whether the user is a direct recipient of email or justcopied.
C. The indicate whether an email contains an attachment.
D. They indicate whether a recipient has received an email.
Answer: A

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NO.2 When speaking with a customer who is still on older versions of Notes and Domino, what is the best
reason for upgrading to Notes and Domino 8.5.?
A. Replication allows for advanced offline capabilities.
B. The Notes user interface still looks much like Notes Version 5, which appeals to older workers.
C. Organizations can significantly reduce IT costs by upgrading to Domino 8.5.
D. The Domino server has been re-engineered to run on WebSphere Application Server.
Answer: B

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NO.3 How many Notes and Notes and Domino applications are estimated to be in active use today?
A. over 10 million
B. over 1 million
C. fewer than 100,000
D. over 700 million
Answer: A

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NO.4 Briefly, what is IBM Social Business strategy?
A. Moving all corporate data to the cloud
B. Leveraging social capabilities in context to enable better business results
C. Discouraging employees from using Facebook and Twitter during work
D. Using IBM Watson technology to improve search algorithms
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following statements about the price of Lotus Symphony productivity suite is true?
A. Users pay an entitlement fee of $300 to trade-in Microsoft Office for Lotus Symphony
B. Lotus Symphony is a free download for anyone to use
C. Only users of Notes 8.5 can use Lotus Symphony
D. Only users of Microsoft Office are allowed to replace Office with Lotus Symphony
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 00M-502
Exam Name: IBM (Power Systems with IBM i Sales Professional - v2)
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Total Q&A: 45 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What Input/Output devices can be offered on a 4-core Power 720 system.?
A. IOPs, HSL loop with Towers
B. SAS and SSD drives, PCI-e, Tape
C. 12X loop, SAS and SSD drives, PCI-e
D. DVD, HSL loop with Towers, Twinax controller
Answer: B

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NO.2 The Lx86 feature of PowerVM enables which of the following?
A. Running Linux Intel binary applications under POWER Linux
B. Running Windows applications under Linux implemented on iSCSI
C. Running Linux Intel binary applications in the PASE environment
D. Running Linux Intel binaries in a Windows integrated environment
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following statements about virtualization on IBM i is correct?
A. Internal storage must be mirrored for data protection.
B. Ethernet connections between partitions and applications require adapters
C. Can host storage for System X and Blades servers running VMware and Windows.
D. Can host storage for i, AIX, Linux, VMware, and Windows running in partitions
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which service must a customer purchase in reference to basic defect and usage of IBM operating
systems ?
A. Service Pack
B. Support Line
C. Software Maintenance
D. Electronic Customer Support
Answer: A

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NO.5 IBM i 7.1, in its DB2 component now supports an industry standard, XML, for exchanging information for
business processes and logiC. Why is this of value to customers and application providers?
A. Provides better query performance
B. They can encrypt a single column of data for security purposes.
C. New WRKWEBQRY functions simplfy this support and is easier to use.
D. Makes it easier to process in DB2 via XML data type and store these documents.
Answer: D

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Exam Name: IBM (IBM Security QRadar V7.0 MR4)
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Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What does it mean if events are coming in as stored?
A. The events are not mapped to an existing QID map.
B. The events are being captured and parsed by a DSM.
C. The events are being captured but not being parsed by a DSM.
D. The events are being stored on disk and will be parsed by a DSM later.
Answer: C

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NO.2 How many default dashboards are included in IBM Security QRadar V7.0 MR4?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which flow source is most often sampled?
A. vFlow
B. sFlow
C. QFlow
D. netflow
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the rule for using the Quick Filter to group terms using logical expressions such as AND,
OR, and NOT?
A. The syntax is not case sensitive.
B. The syntax is case sensitive and the operators must be upper case to be recognized as logical
expressions and not as search terms.
C. The syntax is case sensitive and the operators must be placed between square brackets to be
recognized as logical expressions and not as search terms.
D. The syntax is case sensitive and the operators must be lower case and placed between square
brackets to be recognized as logical expressions and not as search terms.
Answer: B

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NO.5 On the Offense summary page, which filter is executed when the Events icon or the link with
the
number of events is clicked?
A. An event filter with all events matching the source IP address
B. An event filter with all events matching the destination IP address
C. An event filter with the Custom Rule Engine rule(s) for the last 24 hours
D. An event filter with the Custom Rule Engine rule(s) for the duration of the offense
Answer: D

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NO.6 Offenses can be exported to which two file formats? (Choose two.)
A. RTF
B. XML
C. PDF
D. CSV
E. HTML
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 Using Quick Filter, what is a correct search term to find Blocked related activities in the
payload?
A. Blocked
B. "payload includes Blocked"
C. payload includes "Blocked"
D. (payload includes) Blocked
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which event search group contains default PCI searches?
A. Compliance
B. System Monitoring
C. Network Monitoring and Management
D. Authentication, Identity, and User Activity
Answer: A

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NO.9 If a report author shares a report with another IBM Security QRadar V7 0 MR4 user, what type
of report access is granted to the other user.?
A. The other user can only access the report if they are an administrator.
B. The other user can use the original report as if it were created by that person.
C. The report output will be defined by the intersection of networkobjects and log sources of alluser
with
whom the report is shared.
D. The other user will not have any access to the original report definition but can do as they please
with
the report definition of the shared copy.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is a QID identifier?
A. A mapping of a single device to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
B. A mapping of a single event of an external device to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
C. A mapping of multiple events of a single external device to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
D. A mapping of a single event to multiple external devices to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is a prerequisite to create a report that contains at least one bar chart?
A. Have a color display and enable the JPanel
B. Have the role assigned to create (graphical) reports
C. Choose a search that has accumulated properties for the report
D. The search contained in the report must aggregate the results at least along one property
Answer: D

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NO.12 How does a user search for events by high/low level category?
A. Actions menu > add a filter
B. Display drop-down > select categories
C. Add Filter icon > Category drop-down
D. View drop-down > select By Category drop-down
Answer: C

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NO.13 How can a report be set up with restricted user access?
A. Click Reports > Restrict Users
B. Click on Manage Groups and add the user to the Restricted Reports group
C. Select the appropriate users on the Report Editing wizard to access the reports
D. Click Admin > Users, edit each user, and create lists of report filters users are allowed to see
Answer: C

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NO.14 If the IBM Security QRadar V7.0 MR4 operator wants to graph the flow data in the Network
Activity tab,which three chart types can be presented? (Choose three.)
A. Pie Chart
B. Bar Chart
C. Line Chart
D. Area Chart
E. Gant Chart
F. Time Series Chart
Answer: A,B,F

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NO.15 Which steps are required to see hidden offenses in IBM Security QRadar V7.0 MR4 (QRadar)?
A. Contact the QRadar administrator to select Hidden Offenses and then choose the Show option
from
the Action menu.
B. From the Offenses page, navigate to All Offenses and open the Search menu. Select Edit Search
and
in the Search Parameters section, uncheckthe box Exclude Hidden Offenses.
C. From the Offenses page, navigate to the Offenses by Category, and click on Show Inactive
Categories
to display all hidden offenses. Click Hide Inactive Categories to hide them again.
D. Hidden Offenses are no longer associated with Offenses so a custom report and a search should
be
created that uses a search parameter where Associated with Offense equals False. To create a
custom
report, navigate to Reports and from the Actions menu select Create.
Answer: B

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Exam Name: IBM (Enterprise Storage Technical Support V3)
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NO.1 What action would an IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1 administrator take to create a new report using Cognos?
A. open the V5.1 Web-based GUI and select Reporting > Create a Basic Report
B. open the V5.1 Web-based GUI and select Reporting > Create a Cognos Report
C. open the V5.1 Web-based GUI and expand IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center > Reporting > Create a Report
D. open the V5.1 Web-based GUI and expand IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center > Reporting > Cognos Reporting
Answer: A

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NO.2 IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1 can communicate with which component over
IPv6?
A. SRA Agents
B. Java Web Start
C. Rollup Reporting
D. SLP Directory Agents
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which storage system is supported by the storage optimizer in IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity
Center V5.1?
A. SVC 6.2
B. SONAS 1.3
C. DS8800 R6.3
D. Storwiz V7000U 1.3
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer needs to run a Discovery job for their VMWare environment. Where in the
stand-alone
GUI for IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1 would they need to navigate to create that
job?
A. Administrative Services > Discovery > VMWare
B. Data Manager > Discovery > VMWare VI Data Source
C. Administrative Services > VMWare VI Data Source > Discovery
D. Administrative Services > Discovery > VMWare VI Data Source
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which steps correctly assign a group to a role when logged into the IBM Tivoli Storage
Productivity Center V5.1 (TSPC) stand-alone GUI as a user with TSPC superuser privileges?
A. use the Data Manager > Role-to-Group Mappings screen,assign the newly created or existing
OS/LDAP user group to selected TSPC roles,and click on the Save button
B. use the Job Management > Role-to-Group Mappings screen,assign the newly created or
existing OS/LDAP user group to selected TSPC roles,and click on the Save button
C. use the Configuration Utility > Role-to-Group Mappings screen,assign the newly created or
existing OS/LDAP user group to selected TSPCroles,and click on the Save button
D. use the Administrative Services > Configuration > Role-to-Group Mappings screen,assign the
newly created or existing OS/LDAP user groupto selected TSPC roles,and click on the Save
button
Answer: D

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NO.6 In IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1, what are two options presented in the
Repocopy
tool for IBM DB2 Export when exporting data from repository tables? (Choose two.)
A. Export Using Text Files
B. Export Using DB2 Text Files
C. Export Using DB2 Native Format
D. Export Using Comma-separated Excel Sheet
E. Export Using Text Files Containing Comma-separated Values
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 In IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1 stand-alone GUI, where can the status of a
performance monitoring job be checked on a switch that is still in progress?
A. In Fabric Manager > Switch Performance > Jobs panel,under Schedules section,select the
Performance Monitoring job,and then View LogFiles under Jobs for Selected Schedule section.
B. In Fabric Manager > Monitoring > Job Management panel,under Schedules section,select the
Performance Monitoring job,and then View LogFiles under Jobs for Selected Schedule section.
C. In IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center > Job Management panel,under Schedules
section,select the Performance Monitoring job,and then
View Log Files under Jobs for Selected Schedule section.
D. In IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center > Monitoring > Job Management panel,under
Schedules section,select the Performance Monitoringjob,then View Log Files under Jobs for
Selected Schedule section.
Answer: C

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NO.8 How can a user add two Storage Resource agents of different operating systems in a single job
in
the Create Storage Resource Agent Deployment window?
A. add credentials for one system,click Add,and click Add Host List to enter the second system
B. add credentials for one system,click Add,and click Add Agent List to enter the second system
C. add credentials for one system,click Add,and click Add Another Agent to enter the second
system
D. add credentials for one system,click Add,and click Add Storage Resource Agent to enter the
second system
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer executes a SAN Planner function and gets an error. Where can the customer check to verify the SAN Planner Service is running?
A. Under Administrative Services
B. Under Administrative Services > Services
C. Under Administrative Services > Services > Data Server
D. Under Administrative Services > Services > Device Server
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which role can perform Fabric Manager functions and has limited access to other nodes?
A. Fabric Operator
B. SAN Administrator
C. Fabric Administrator
D. Productivity Center Administrator
Answer: C

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Exam Name: IBM (IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.1 Implementation)
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Total Q&A: 64 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which connection type to the console is required to run qchange_netsetup?
A. Local
B. SSH
C. RDP
D. Telnet
Answer: A

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NO.2 What must be done to obtain a token for an Authorized Service for WinCollect?
A. Select Authorized Service under the WinCollect plug-in
B. Add the service as an Authorized Service in the Admin tab
C. Go to System and License Management and add an Authorized Service
D. Go to Console Settings and add the already configured WinCollect as an Authorized Service
Answer: B

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NO.3 IBM Security Qradar SIEM V7.1 (QRadar) has a set of algorithms that evaluates the need to
compress and delete data when certain thresholds are crossed. When disk usage for the Ariel
database location crosses a percentage threshold, QRadar will begin compressing the data
regardless of the compression settings in the retention buckets. At what percentage will QRadar
begin to compress data?
A. 70%full
B. 85%full
C. 99%full
D. 95%full
Answer: B

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6. Which log file contains all of the relevant logging data for IBM Security Qradar SIEM V7.1?
A. /var/Iog/qradar.txt
B. /var/Iog/qradar.log
C. /var/Iog/messages
D. /var/Iog/qradar.error
Answer: B

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lP
addresses. Where must this file be placed so the plug-in can be used?
A. /opt/qradar/init
B. /opt/qradar/bi n
C. /opt/qradar/conf
D. /opt/qradar/webplugins
Answer: C

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8. How are users configured to use external authentication starting from the Admin tab?
A. Authentication> select and configure the Authentication Module
B. User Roles> select the check box to use External Authentication
C. Users> Edit User> select the check box to use External Authentication
D. Authentication> select the check box next to each user that should use the configured external
authentication
Answer: A

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9. How is an IBM Security Qradar SIEM V7.1 System Activity Report configured to receive alerts
for
network transmit or receive errors?
A. Dashboard tab > use the Gear icon to configure the table to set up a threshold.
B. Admin tab > Data Sources, click on the Flow Sources, enter the desired flow source, edit the
parameter for the network errors item.
C. Admin tab > System Notifications, click on the threshold button, click on the desired radio
button, and choose the desired threshold.
D. Admin tab > System Configuration, click on Global System Configuration, click the Enabled
check box, use the dropdown and choose greater or less than, and enter the desired threshold.
Answer: D

IBM   000-196   000-196   000-196
10. An administrator has been alerted to an offense with a high magnitude and upon further
investigation, a high number of flow and event counts are seen. What is the next step to
investigate the incident?
A. Click on the Flows or Events link and go to the Log Activity or Network Activity tab.
B. Go to the Log and Network Activity tab and do a full search of the source or destination.
C. Search on the Assets tab of the offense ID in relation to the QID that triggered the offense.
D. Create a new search in the Offense tab to find more details on the user that is causing the
offense.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Assuming that a WinCollect agent is already defined for the IBM Security Qradar SIEM V7.1
(QRadar) console, what is required to collect event logs from a Windows 2008 server using
WinCollect?
A. Add a log source for Windows Security’ Event Logs configured with the proper account
credentials to collect from the Windows 2008 server.
B. The WinCollect agent must be installed on a Windows 2003 system and then configured to
collect the Windows 2008 events through IPC$.
C. Windows 2008 is not supported by WinCollect so ALE must be installed on the targetfirstto
forward the events as syslog messages to the WinCollect agent.
D. No additional steps are necessary’. The event logs will automatically be collected because the
WinCollect agent is already installed on the Windows 2008 system.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is one purpose of Log Source groups in IBM Security Qradar SIEM V7.1?
A. To group log sources together for indexing
B. To create the association between log and flow sources
C. To create the association between log source and QID mapping
D. To group log source items to allow for searching, rules, and reports
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-652
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5 Fundamentals)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is the purpose of domains within IBM SmartCloud Control Desk?
A. To allow global searches across areas of an organization
B. To specify ownership of a set of objects within the product
C. To separate configuration items and assets into geographical areas
D. To maintain a value list that can be used in fields within the product
Answer: D

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NO.2 When installing an enterprise solution, which edition of IBM SmartCloud Control Desk can be
installed?
A. Only Entry Edition
B. Any product edition
C. Only Everyplace Edition
D. Only Service Provider Edition
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which ticket type must be used for a user who is asking for information?
A. Incident
B. Problem
C. Service Request
D. Process Request
Answer: C

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NO.4 What functionality will a user need to define a set of tasks that will be applied to the Service
Request once the Catalog Request is submitted and approved?
A. Job Plan
B. Fulfillment Plan
C. Ticket Template
D. Fulfillment Template
Answer: A

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NO.5 What are three types of IBM SmartCloud Control Desk offerings? (Choose three.)
A. Action
B. Descriptive
C. Work Order
D. Work Request
E. Service Catalog
F. Service Request
Answer: A,B,F

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NO.6 What is the purpose of the Promotion process?
A. To create configuration items (CI) from Actual CIs
B. To create Actual CIs from CIs
C. To enable CIs to be used in the Change Management process
D. To enable Actual CIs to be used in the Change Management process
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the purpose of the Update Promotion action?
A. To update attributes of the configuration item (CI) based on the information from the Actual CI
B. To update attributes of the Actual CI based on the information from the CI
C. To update attributes of the CI based on the information from the Change Management process
D. To update attributes of the Actual CI based on the information from the Change Management
process
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5 (SCCD) application server used for?
A. To apply SCCD fix packs
B. To generate SCCD EAR files
C. To provide a SCCD runtime environment
D. To customize Maximo Business Object Java code
Answer: C

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NO.9 What are two appropriate Key Performance Indicators for the Service Catalog Management
Process? (Choose two.)
A. Number of accesses per month
B. Number of calls to the service desk
C. Percent of users who use the service catalog
D. Percent of users who are aware of the service catalog
E. Number of services published including Service Level Agreements/Targets
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Which two activities are included in the scope of IT Asset management? (Choose two.)
A. Risk Management
B. License Management
C. Security Management
D. Inventory Management
E. Configuration Management
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: 00M-237
Exam Name: IBM (IBM B2B Integration-Network-Managed File Transfer Sales Mastery Test v1 (000-M237))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which of the following IBM/Sterling solutions provides "at rest" data encryption?
A. IBM Sterling Connect:Direct
B. IBM Sterling Secure Proxy
C. IBM Sterling File Gateway
D. IBM Sterling Control Center
E. All of the above.
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.redbooks.ibm.com/redbooks/pdfs/sg247927.pdf(page 247, Security, 3rd
bulleted point)

NO.2 What can happen when data such as purchase order information is incorrectly re-keyed into
internal business systems and applications?
A. Decrease in inventory costs.
B. Late deliveries & penalties such as charge backs.
C. Increased customer satisfaction & sales.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.3 How does IBM Sterling B2B Integrator achieve B2B Process Automation?
A. Using a proprietary scripting language.
B. By means of a visual workflow modeler.
C. Writing new Java code for each process.
D. Through manually routing messages.
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.redbooks.ibm.com/redbooks/pdfs/sg247927.pdf(page 6, topic 1.3.4, last
paragraph)

NO.4 Which of the following represents a good opportunity for IBM Sterling B2B Integrator?
A. An organization seeking secure, process-driven partner integration.
B. An organization seeking to extend their SOA and ESB infrastructures to B2B partners.
C. Customers with multiple data movement patterns and point solutions (silos) needing to
consolidate on a strategic platform.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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6. File transfer challenges are commonly seen in which industry?
A. Government
B. Telecommunications
C. Distribution and Logistics
D. Manufacturing
E. All of the above.
Answer: C

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7. IBM Sterling File Gateway is IBM's multi-protocol "_______" communication solution for
secure B2B file exchange.
A. edge
B. cloud
C. internal
D. ESB
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www-01.ibm.com/software/commerce/managed-file-transfer/products/filegatew
ay/(bulleted point #1)
8. Which of the following is NOT a feature of IBM Sterling File Gateway that helps customers
ensure that they are compliant with regulatory requirements?
A. Auditing capabilities.
B. Access controls for file transfer activity.
C. Secure file transfer protocols.
D. Encryption of files both in-flight and at rest.
E. All of the above features help customers ensure that they are compliant with regulatory
requirements.
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www-01.ibm.com/software/commerce/managed-file-transfer/products/filegatew
ay/features.html(topic: management and visibility, 4thbulleted point)

NO.5 According to a study performed by IDC, customers who have implemented IBM Sterling File
Gateway have seen a ______ reduction in labor costs related to troubleshooting edge-based file
transfer activity
A. 65%
B. 50%
C. 38%
D. 90%
Answer: D

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