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Exam Code: 000-M39
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere MQ Technical Sales Mastery Test v2 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which topic string is NOT valid for a subscribing application to get all messages about fresh fruit if a
topic tree exists with the following topic hierarchy: deli/fresh; deli/fresh/fruit; deli/tinned/nuts;
deli/tinned/meat?
A. deli
B. deli/+/fruit
C. deli/fresh/fruit
D. deli/#
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is required for WebSphere MQ v7 to support publish-subscribe messaging?
A. A queue manager
B. A publish-subscribe broker that has the same name as the queue manager
C. A separate broker process that is associated with each queue manager
D. ASupportPac is available to provide publish-subscribe functionality
Answer: A

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NO.3 In order to write messages to a queue what operation must be done first?
A. Connect to the queue
B. Verify queue is empty
C. Set the queue to read/write mode
D. Open the queue
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT a channel connection enhancement new in WebSphere MQ v7?
A. MQI channel connections can be shared
B. SSL encryption for each MQI Channel connection
C. Read-ahead for non-persistent messages
D. Automatic client reconnection
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the name of the MQMD field that a message producer uses to ensure that no consumers
receive a message after a message has been on a destination queue for a specified period of time?
A. Timeout
B. Expiry
C. TimeToLive
D. MaxAge
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-057
Exam Name: IBM (AppScan Source Edition)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which three operating systems support all of the client components of AppScan Source Edition.?
(Choose three.)
A. OS X
B. Solaris
C. Windows 7
D. Windows XP
E. Red Hat Enterprise Linux
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.2 What is HTTP response splitting?
A. changing Web pages in the cache to attack users
B. overloading a server with excess information
C. altering information, such as product prices, in hidden fields
D. modifying cookies to gain access to other users' accounts
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which company offers the primary competition to AppScan Source Edition?
A. Fortify/HP
B. Veracode
C. Microsoft
D. Compuware
Answer: A

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NO.4 Why are users not able to create custom rules, set validators, and perform issue management from the
IDE plug-ins?
A. because these tasks should be performed by specialists and applied consistently by all users
B. because rules and validators are not configurable
C. because this planned functionality has not yet been extended to the plug-ins
D. because the plug-ins do not communicate directly with the AppScan Core
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about custom rules and markup? (Choose two.)
A. Users can create their own checks in any file using regular expressions and other techniques through a
configuration screen.
B. Users can mark up third-party libraries and custom code to determine which vulnerabilities they are
concerned about.
C. AppScan Source does not ship with markup for standard libraries and common frameworks, so users
will need to mark up all libraries and methods they want as sources/sinks in order to get effective scan
results.
D. Users can mark up any file from IDE plug-ins or from a configuration screen in AppScan Source for
Security.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 What is the first step that should be taken once the Standard Desktop installation has completed?
A. set the admin password
B. create the database user
C. import custom filters
D. import an application or environment
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which approach to security testing is covered by AppScan Source Edition?
A. manual
B. black box
C. white box
D. gray box
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which customer situation signals a good opportunity for AppScan Source Edition?
A. They have an in-house team of security specialists.
B. They are looking for the solution with the lowest price.
C. Their application is just entering production.
D. They are short on time due to delays in application development.
Answer: A

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NO.9 From which three places can remediation information be accessed for a finding? (Choose three.)
A. from the IDE using a developer plug-in
B. from the Analysis view in the Security Interface
C. from the Reporting Console
D. from the AppScan Knowledgebase Web site
E. from the Triage view in the Security Interface
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.10 In which deployment configuration do developers routinely scan their code from an IDE plug-in at their
own convenience?
A. Late Stage
B. Low Touch
C. Center of Excellence
D. Mature Deployment LDAP
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-612
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Database Administrator - DB2 10 for z/OS)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 134 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 When converting a multiple table segmented table space to partition-by-growth table spaces, which
statement is correct?
A. DSMAX may have to be increased.
B. Storage requirements for EDMDBDC will decrease.
C. Storage requirements for some applications will increase.
D. The dynamic statement cache should be increased to handle the additional SQL statements.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two of the following DB2 performance features will ignore clustering in favor of faster insert
performance? (Choose two.)
A. Append
B. Inline LOBs
C. Member cluster
D. Volatile table
E. Include columns
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 What would be a reason for altering the clustering index of a table?
A. To increase free space.
B. Because the clustering index has to match the primary index.
C. To choose a clustering index to favor batch sequential processing.
D. To choose a clustering index to promote sequential inserts at the end of the table space.
Answer: C

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NO.4 In using plan stability, what storage space requirement should be of carefully monitored?
A. MINSTOR
B. DSNDB07
C. DSNDB01.SPT01
D. DSN_STATEMNT_TABLE
Answer: C

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NO.5 What IBM provided stored procedure will access DB2 real time statistics tables?
A. DSNAEXP
B. DSNAIMS
C. DSNACCOX
D. DSNLEUSR
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which DSNZPARM will define the number of RID Blocks in the RID Pool?
A. NUMTCB
B. MAXRBLK
C. CONDBAT
D. URLGWTH
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the DSNZPARM that determines the maximum amount of temporary storage in the work file
data base for a single user at any given time?
A. MAXRBLK
B. MAXDBAT
C. MAXKEEPD
D. MAXTEMPS
Answer: D

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NO.8 In order to retain an access path across a rebind which of the following commands could be used?
A. BIND PLAN
B. REBIND PACKAGE(PK1) REOPT(ONCE)
C. BIND PACKAGE (PK1) EXPLAIN(YES)
D. REBIND PACKAGE (PK1) PLANMGMT(BASIC)
Answer: D

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NO.9 When is a merge scan join a well performing access path?
A. When the number of qualifying rows of the inner and outer table are both large.
B. When the query references at least two dimensions and the STARJOIN subsystem parameter is 1.
C. When the number of rows in the outer table is small and the number of pages accessed in the inner
table is small.
D. When the matching columns of the inner table are in a non-clustering index or the outer table has
duplicate qualifying rows.
Answer: A

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NO.10 What START TRACE command provides detailed lock suspend and lock contention trace information?
A. START TRACE(AUDIT)
B. START TRACE(STATS) CLASS(1)
C. START TRACE(PERFM) CLASS(30) IFCID(44,45)
D. START TRACE(ACCTG) CLASS(1,2,3) DEST(SMF)
Answer: C

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NO.11 Workload Manager (WLM) manages how many concurrent stored procedures can run in an address
space and the number of concurrent stored procedures in an address space cannot exceed the value of
the NUMTCB parameter. Which statement about the value of NUMTCB is correct?
A. NUMTCB parameter must be set to 1 for Java stored procedures.
B. NUMTCB parameter must be set to 1 for REXX stored procedures.
C. NUMTCB parameter can be a value greater than 1 for native SQL stored procedures.
D. NUMTCB parameter can be a value greater than 1 when a stored procedure invokes DB2 utilities.
Answer: B

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NO.12 What two parameters allow DB2 to keep a copy of a dynamically prepared statement in the cache?
A. KEEPDYNAMIC(YES) and CACHEDYN=YES
B. KEEPDYNAMIC(NO) and CACHEDYN=NO
C. KEEPDYNAMIC(NO) and REOPT(ALWAYS)
D. KEEPDYNAMIC(YES) and REOPT(ALWAYS)
Answer: A

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NO.13 In the CFRM policy, what is the purpose of the PREFLIST?
A. To identify the size of the structure.
B. To identify all the DB2 members in the group.
C. To identify the preferences for DB2 restart in the event of a disconnection.
D. To identify the preferences for structure rebuild/reallocation during a coupling facility failure.
Answer: D

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NO.14 If a single row of the PLAN_TABLE has a 'Y' value in more than one of the sort composite columns,
what is indicated.?
A. The next sort step will perform two sorts.
B. There are multiple sorts in the plan step.
C. One sort in the plan step will accomplish two tasks.
D. Two sorts are performed on the new table of a star join.
Answer: C

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NO.15 When DB2 detects at runtime requiring a large amount of data to be read, which prefetch method is
used more often?
A. List prefetch
B. Dynamic prefetch
C. Sequential prefetch
D. Skip sequential prefetch
Answer: B

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NO.16 The available window to reorganize table spaces is being reduced. What data can provide information
to allow for a priority list of candidate table spaces for reorganization based on recent activity with no
recent RUNSTATS execution?
A. SYSIBM.SYSCOPY
B. SYSIBM.SYSTABLES
C. SYSIBM.SYSINDEXES
D. SYSIBM.SYSTABLESPACESTATS
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which DB2 trace is utilized to capture overall subsystem virtual memory consumption?
A. The DB2 audit trace.
B. The DB2 statistics trace.
C. The DB2 connection trace.
D. The DB2 accounting trace.
Answer: B

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NO.18 The EXPLAIN STMTCACHE ALL statement provides information about SQL tuning. Which information
is part of the DSN_STATEMENT_CACHE_TABLE?
A. Filter factor information.
B. Stage 1 and stage 2 information.
C. Number of columns used in an index.
D. Number of times an SQL statement is executed.
Answer: D

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NO.19 What is a consideration when specifying DATA CAPTURE CHANGES?
A. Can be specified for capturing changes to an XML object.
B. To minimize logging, specify NOT LOGGED when DATA CAPTURE CHANGES is specified.
C. REFRESH TABLE statement is not allowed with a table defined with DATA CAPTURE
CHANGES.
D. You cannot turn on DATA CAPTURE CHANGES if the table space is in advisory REORG-pending.
Answer: D

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NO.20 What trace class will show deadlock information?
A. Audit class 3.
B. Statistic class 3.
C. Accounting class 1.
D. Performance class 8.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-M68
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Information Mgmt Informix Technical Mastery Test v3)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 42 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which Informix utility allows you to change the logging mode for one or more databases?
A. oninit
B. ondblog
C. onmode
D. ondbmode
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is a valid VP class.?
A. PDQ
B. AIO
C. MACH11
D. OBJ
Answer: B

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NO.3 At the operating system level, what is the name of every Informix process?
A. informix
B. oninit
C. cpuvp
D. root
Answer: B

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NO.4 In which of the following scenarios is Informix the best fit?
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B. Large data warehouses requiring cubing and complex multi-dimensional queries.
C. Applications requiring dedicated hardware as part of the solution.
D. High-transaction OLTP workloads.
Answer: D

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NO.5 The Flexible Grid technology of Informix offers which of the following benefits?
A. The ability to communicate with other non-IBM products.
B. The ability to perform administrative tasks on multiple sites from a single server with no downtime.
C. The ability to replicate data between different versions and editions of Informix.
D. The ability to achieve redundancy using expensive hardware and third party software.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-M73
Exam Name: IBM (IBM OmniFind Technical Sales Mastery Test V1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 52 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 The IBM Classification Module can integrate with which IBM products?
A. OmniFind Enterprise Edition
B. OmniFind Discovery Edition
C. IBM FileNet P8
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is an example of an Insight Solution that uses an out-of-the-box regular
expression annotator and does not require programming?
A. Online Media Analysis
B. Semantic-enabled Enterprise Search
C. Quality Insight
D. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.3 A text analysis module that focuses on a single task is called which of the following.?
A. A collection processing agent
B. A search engine
C. An annotator
D. A taxonomy engine
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which feature of Insight Solutions with OmniFind Enterprise Edition enables a company to achieve
greater insight into customer behavior and business performance?
A. Text analysis using plug in annotators and native support for UIMA
B. Pre-built solution accelerators
C. Featured links and "Do you mean" synonym definition
D. Native document-level security and static tokens
Answer: A

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NO.5 In order to integrate OmniFind Enterprise Edition with WebSphere Portal, you first must install OmniFind
EE on which server?
A. Same server as Portal
B. Separate server from Portal
C. Either on the same server or on a separate server from Portal
D. On the same server as your corporate directory server
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-558
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Database Assoc - Informix Fundamentals 11.70)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 You have a database server environment where all databases use buffered logging. In which two
conditions are the logical-log buffers in shared memory flushed to the logical log on disk? (Choose two.)
A. When the buffer is full.
B. When a checkpoint occurs.
C. When a user issues a begin work.
D. When a user commits the transaction.
E. When a user rolls back the transaction.
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Which two operations are performed with the onspaces command? (Choose two.)
A. Add space to the server.
B. Compress server space.
C. Encrypt the server space.
D. Remove space from the server.
E. Restrict access to the server space.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator created a table using the SQL statement shown in the exhibit to perform a load operation
every day at 11:00 AM. What is the best way to optimize a backup strategy to recover the client table in
case of a failure?
A. a level-1 backup at 6:00 AM everyday
B. a level-0 backup soon after the load operation
C. a level-1 backup on Sunday and continuous log backup
D. a level-2 backup at 6:00 AM every day and continuous log backup
Answer: B

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NO.4 A progammer wants to unload a table to a file inside a stored procedure. What functionality listed
below will help the programmer accomplish the task?
A. dbload
B. dbexport
C. external table
D. SQL unload statement
Answer: C

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NO.5 You want to use sqlhosts file /newlocation/newsqlhosts. Which of the following is true?
A. sqlhosts file must be called sqlhosts
B. set INFORMIXSQLHOSTS variable to /newlocation/sqlhosts
C. set INFORMIXSQLHOSTS variable to /newlocation/newsqlhosts
D. sqlhosts file must be defined under $INFORMIXDIR/etc/ directory
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which command option should be used to resume an interrupted onbar restore?
A. -RETRY
B. -RESTART
C. -REINTIIALZE
D. -BEGIN_AGAIN
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which Informix data movement utilities listed below can be used to move database from a computer
running Windows operating system to an Apple computer?
A. ontape
B. onunload and onload
C. ifxsend and ifxreceive
D. dbexport and dbimport
Answer: D

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the update statement of Client 2 if both of the clients are
connected to the same logged database?
A. Client 2 will update col2 of the rows having col1=20.
B. Client 2 will return successfully without updating any rows.
C. Client 2 will keep waiting for client 1 to finish its transaction.
D. Client 2 will get an error that the "record is locked" or the "table is locked".
Answer: D

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NO.9 Why would you want to create a table with a lock mode row as opposed to a lock mode page?
A. to reduce disk I/O
B. to keep more information in memory for each locked row
C. to increase concurrency among multiple users on the same table
D. to reduce the number of locks when accessing rows out of the table
Answer: C

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NO.10 How can you determine which databases are created in an instance?
A. use dbschema utility
B. inspect ONCONFIG file
C. List reserved pages with oncheck -pr
D. run SELECT name FROM sysmaster:sysdatabases
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following is true about system catalog tables access?
A. Only user informix can read system catalog tables
B. Only system administrators can read system catalog tables
C. Only database administrators can read system catalog tables
D. Any user that can connect to the database can read system catalog tables
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which command would you execute to restore to a specific moment-in-time.?
A. onbar -t timestamp
B. onbar -r -log lognum
C. onbar -r -t timestamp
D. onbar -r -l timestamp
Answer: C

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NO.13 When restoring data, which granularity of object may NOT be restored?
A. a single table
B. a single chunk
C. a single dbspace
D. an entire instance
Answer: B

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NO.14 Given INFORMIXCONTIME = 60 and INFORMIXCONRETRY = 3, if the initial connection attempt fails,
what subsequent attempts will be made to connect?
A. 60 and 120 seconds before aborting
B. Every 3 minutes within one hour before aborting
C. Every 3 seconds within one hour before aborting
D. Wait indefinitely until it is successfully completed
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which isolation level is appropriate if you do not want your query to place any locks?
A. Dirty Read
B. Cursor Stability
C. Committed Read
D. Repeatable Read
Answer: A

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NO.16 What are two system level databases? (Choose two.)
A. sysperf
B. sysadmin
C. sysmaster
D. sysmonitor
E. sysscheduler
Answer: B,C

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NO.17 Which utility can be used to relocate the physical log to a new dbspace?
A. onlog
B. ontape
C. onspaces
D. onparams
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which two of the following are required for creating a dbspace? (Choose two.)
A. a mirror chunk
B. two or more chunks
C. a cooked file or raw device
D. a file owned by root or administrator
E. dbspace name containing only letters, digits, underscores, or $ characters.
Answer: C,E

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NO.19 What are two ways to create table t1 with row level locking? (Choose two.)
A. Execute the command "create table t1 (c1 int) locking row".
B. Execute the command "create table t1 (c1 int) lock level row".
C. Execute the command "create table t1 (c1 int) lock mode row".
D. Set DEF_TABLE_LOCKMODE to ROW in ONCONFIG before executing "create table t1(c1 int)".
E. Set the environment variable DEF_TABLE_LOCKMODE to ROW before executing "create table t1(c1
int)".
Answer: C,D

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NO.20 Under which of the following conditions does the LAST COMMITTED option have an effect on the
COMMITTED READ isolation level?
A. Row level lock
B. Page level locking
C. RAW or unlogged tables
D. Tables containing complex data types
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-561
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System V4.3 Implem)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 92 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Log Evidence is enabled for an event and an administrator wants to review the packet content. Where
in the Local Management Interface is this log file downloaded?
A. under Security Settings, select the policy that logs the event, click on Download Log, and the save file
B. select Review, under Downloads select Logs and Packet Captures, select the files, and click Download
C. on the Security Dashboard, click the Evidence Logs link, click all files related to the event, and save the
files
D. select Home Dashboard, scroll down to the section on evidence logs, select the log file(s), and click
Download
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two user notification response object types are available in IBM Security Network Intrusion
Prevention System V4.3? (Choose two.)
A. SMS
B. E-mail
C. Remedy
D. Voicemail
E. SNMP Trap/Inform
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 What are two restrictions placed on remote users using IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention
System V4.3? (Choose two.)
A. They cannot reboot the appliance.
B. They cannot log in to the local console.
C. They cannot change the local user account passwords.
D. They cannot save changes to policies in the Web interface.
E. They cannot log in to the appliance when the authentication server is down.
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 What are two purposes for the Quarantine Rules in the Response Tuning page in the Local
Management Interface? (Choose two.)
A. add new quarantine rules
B. set network configuration options
C. temporarily disable a quarantine rule
D. review rules generated in response to intruder events
E. define how the appliance should send notifications when it detects an intrusion in the network
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which file can be imported or compiled, and defines the format of SNMP traps for security events
responses in the IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System appliance?
A. iss.mib
B. ibm.mib
C. linux.mib
D. snmp.mib
Answer: A

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NO.6 Where in the Local Management Interface is the location of the date and time of the last backup of an
IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System V4.3 viewable?
A. Evidence log
B. Message log
C. System Dashboard
D. Security Dashboard
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which area of the IBM Protocol Analysis Module technology prevents Skype from using enterprise
network bandwidth?
A. Data Security
B. Application Control
C. Threat Detection and Prevention
D. Client-side Application Protection
Answer: B

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NO.8 Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) exclusions have been added to a Protection Domain, however
events from those VLANs seem to be generated anyway. What is the most likely cause?
A. A VLAN cannot be excluded in a custom Protection Domain.
B. Multiple VLANs cannot be excluded in a custom Protection Domain.
C. Incorrect interfaces have been specified in a custom Protection Domain.
D. The same exception has not been created on the Global Protection Domain.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which interface mode is required in order for quarantine response rules to work?
A. Bypass Mode
B. Inline Protection Mode
C. Inline Simulation Mode
D. Passive Monitoring Mode
Answer: B

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NO.10 Where in the IBM Security SiteProtector System Console can a customer find the link status of the
Security Interfaces on an IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System appliance?
A. the networkinfo section under Module Status in the appliance Properties screen
B. the Intrusion Prevention section under Module Status in the appliance Properties screen
C. the Security Interfaces section on the Health Summary Network tab in the appliance Properties screen
D. the Internal Communication section on the Health Summary System tab in the appliance Properties
screen
Answer: A

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NO.11 How is a firewall rule configured to block remote desktop (RDP) access for all interfaces and all Virtual
Local Area Networks.?
A. protocol=TCP, source port exclude RDP
B. action=ignore, select Interfaces, protocol=TCP, port=3389
C. keep all default settings but change the target port to 3389
D. action=drop, protocol=UDP, target port uncheck any and enter 3389
Answer: C

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NO.12 Where is the provinfo file stored?
A. /var/cache
B. /var/support/
C. root directory
D. admin directory
Answer: B

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NO.13 A customer wants to change the severity of an IBM Protocol Analysis Module signature from high to low
in a given protection domain. Which policy meets this requirement?
A. Security Events
B. Open Signatures
C. System Updates
D. X-Force Virtual Patch
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which file is accessed on the IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System V4.3 appliance to
determine why it is Active with Errors in IBM Security SiteProtector System?
A. Boot log file
B. Kernel log file
C. Engine0 log file
D. Messages log file
Answer: D

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NO.15 Where would a user be added to allow a remote user to access the IBM Security Network Intrusion
Prevention System V4.3 Local Management Interface?
A. the Remote Access policy in IBM Security SiteProtector System (SiteProtector)
B. the User Management utility in SiteProtector
C. the Accounts and Passwords page in the Web interface
D. the Password Management menu in the SSH Configuration menu
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-539
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 Administration )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 129 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is supported and eligible for export from one IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM) server to
another?
A. network attached storage nodes
B. data from a Centera device class
C. data from a server with retention protection enabled
D. file data from a TSM V6.2 server to TSM V6.1 server storage
Answer: C

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NO.2 What must be defined for data deduplication?
A. active data pool
B. ProtecTIER device
C. client staging area
D. storage pool for deduplication
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which configuration file must be edited to enable journal backups in AIX?
A. dsm.opt
B. dsm.sys
C. journal.ini
D. tsmjbbd.ini
Answer: D

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NO.4 While attempting to configure a network attached storage (NAS) backup, an IBM Storage Manager
V6.2 (TSM) administrator is unable to access the Web client graphical user interface to initiate a network
data management protocol backup. What are two reasons? (Choose two.)
A. authentication=on is not set on the TSM server
B. insufficient access rights to traverse the NAS file system
C. tocdestination include.nas.fs is not set in dsm.opt
D. tocdestination include.nas.fs is not set in ndmp.opt
E. passwordaccess=generate is not set on the Backup-Archive client
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 What type of information does the Client Activity History Report provide in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager
V6.2?
A. image backups
B. client nodes in session
C. client nodes participating
D. network data management protocol backups
Answer: C

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NO.6 How is an Oracle database backed up consistently with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM) when
Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN) is not available?
A. shut down the database then select the TSM API
B. leave the database open and use the TSM Backup-Archive client
C. shut down the database then use the TSM Backup-Archive client
D. backup the database using Oracle tools and then use TSM Data Protector for Oracle
Answer: C

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NO.7 How does an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 administrator create a separate place for backing up a
client's data that must have the most current versions of files for a single server?
A. define a full backup pool
B. define a file device class
C. define an active data pool
D. define a disk storage pool
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which option must be set to perform IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 database backups to certain
device classes?
A. set dbbackup
B. set dbrecovery
C. set dbdevclass
D. set drmdbbackupexpiredays
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which command displays the Disaster Recovery Manager (DRM) Plan parameters?
A. Show DRMPLAN
B. Query DRMSTATUS
C. Query Recoveryplan
D. Query DRMRECOVERYPLAN
Answer: B

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NO.10 A network data management protocol (NDMP) network attached storage device must be backed to
IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM). Which interfaces are supported to perform this function?
A. TSM Client Scheduler, Backup-Archive command line client, administrative command line client
B. TSM Backup-Archive Web client, NDMP command line client, administrative command line client
C. TSM Backup-Archive Web client, Backup-Archive command line client, administrative command line
client
D. TSM NDMP graphical user interface, Backup-Archive command line client, administrative command
line client
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which task menu is used when configuring IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 Backup-Archive client
preferences in the Backup-Archive graphical user interface?
A. Edit
B. Utilities
C. Actions
D. Options
Answer: B

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NO.12 What are two optional recovery log types when implementing an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2
server? (Choose two.)
A. Active log
B. Active log mirror
C. Archive Mirror log
D. Active Fail-over log
E. Archive Fail-over log
Answer: B,E

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NO.13 What ensures that VMware full and incremental backups do not backup subfile data relating to the
virtual machine node being protected?
A. exclude.subfile *:\..\*
B. vmbacknodelete YES
C. exclude.dir subfile=no
D. include.subfile g:\tsm\vmbackup\...\*
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which option allows users to specify how directory structures are handled when performing a restore
to a new location?
A. restoredir
B. preservedir
C. restorepath
D. preservepath
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which privilege class is required to create the Disaster Recovery Plan?
A. System
B. Security
C. Operator
D. Recovery
Answer: A

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NO.16 After configuring the monitoring agent for monitoring, which application is used to display the IBM Tivoli
Storage Manager V6.2 near real-time status?
A. IBM Tivoli Integrated Portal
B. IBM Tivoli Enterprise Portal
C. IBM Tivoli Monitoring Center
D. IBM Tivoli Productivity Center
Answer: B

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NO.17 How is a management class MC associated with a file or file group in the client options file?
A. update <file name> MC
B. include <file name> MC
C. associate <file name> MC
D. set policy <file name> MC
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which privilege class is needed to issue administrator commands that only affect specific storage
pools?
A. Restricted Policy privilege
B. Restricted Storage privilege
C. Unrestricted Policy privilege
D. Unrestricted Storage privilege
Answer: B

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NO.19 What are two requirements for a properly working Web client? (Choose two.)
A. a supported Web server
B. an administrator with at least node owner authority
C. the client acceptor daemon service dsmcad is set up and running
D. the passwordacces option in the client option file is set to prompt
E. an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 server with an extended edition license
Answer: B,C

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NO.20 What is the function of the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM) client scheduler.?
A. It enables security for the scheduling service.
B. It enables tasks to be performed automatically.
C. It enables the client to control access to the TSM server.
D. It enables backup scheduling on AIX or Linux clients only.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-Z03
Exam Name: IBM (zEnterprise Solution Sales Update Mastery)
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Total Q&A: 36 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 A customer currently has blades of several types, including Intel-based blades, and is using
virtualization.Without having more details of the customer
current environment what could be
presented as an advantage of the Unified Resource Manager and zBX?
A.Ability to define and run more virtual machines per virtualized blade
B.Managing the workloads in the blades according to goal-oriented policies
C.Employing a single hypervisor across all the platforms
D.Ability to easily relocate virtual machines across platforms
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer has many highly variable Linux workloads that would virtualize very well with z/VM. The
customer has no z/VM skills.The customer wants to implement a capacity management and chargeback
system.Which of these alternatives would be the most appropriate zEnterprise solution?
A.Linux on z/VM and IFLs with Unified Resource Manager to provide a simplified management interface
B.zBX since recent announcements shift focus away from Linux on z/VM as a viable solution
C.Linux on Power blades in a zBX with Unified Resource Manager for simplified management
D.Linux on z/VM and IFLs with services to setup and provide ongoing support for z/VM
Answer: D

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NO.3 What software pricing option should be considered for a z/OS environment on a stand alone z114?
A.VWLC and ELA
B.IPLA or EWLC
C.AEWLC
D.PSLC
Answer: C

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NO.4 When discussing z/OS with a new customer WLM was presented as a key differentiator. However the
customer countered its current competitive system also has a workload manager.Which one is a key
difference of z/OS WLM?
A.Manages in a holistic way all the workload elements running in z/OS
B.Can manage a multi-tier workload residing in the zEnterprise CPC and in the zBX
C.Manages processes, memory and I/O, minimizing resources
D.Minimizes required resources across the zEnterprise (CPC and zBX)
Answer: A

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benefit of consolidating these systems onto a System z running Linux?
A.If the distributed servers are highly utilized, they make good candidates to consolidate onto a System z
running Linux.
B.Linux on System z is controlled by IBM, it is far superior to Linux on other platforms.
C.Server consolidation may result in a reduced footprint, environmental savings, and increased speed of
virtual Linux server creation.
D.Consolidating onto a System z can increase security since the use of HiperSockets is required.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M236
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Storage Sales Mastery Test v3)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 35 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 SVC (SAN Volume Controller) can provide which of the following?
A. Can provision storage but has to take the client down to do it.
B. Can increase performance by using the EMC pass through driver.
C. Reduce Storage costs.
D. Apply Time Finder to different vendors disk sub-systems.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which feature does TSM (Tivoli Storage Manager) NOT provide.?
A. Backup and Recovery
B. Device mapping
C. Archive and Retrieve
D. HSM (Hierarchical Storage Manager)
E. Content management
Answer: E

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NO.3 ° N ea r I ns t an t R ecove r ¡± pr o vi de s w hi c h o f t h e fo l l o w i ng
A. The ability to restore directly from tape.
B. The ability to restore directly from disk.
C. The ability to mount the tape directly to the host.
D. The ability to mount the disk directly to the host.
Answer: A

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